JAMB Full Prediction Practice Pack
2,000 original multiple-choice practice questions
Use of English - Biology - Chemistry - Physics
This PDF contains 500 original practice questions for each subject. Each item includes four options, the correct answer, a short
explanation, a topic label, and a likelihood rating. The questions are organized by subject and broadly prioritized from higher-yield areas
to lower-frequency areas.
Study note: this pack is an original practice resource designed around the official syllabus, common JAMB-style wording, and frequently
tested topic areas. It is not an official JAMB paper.
Subjects | Questions |
Use of English | 500 |
Biology | 500 |
Chemistry | 500 |
Physics | 500 |
Total | 2,000 |
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 1Use of English
500 original multiple-choice questions with answers, explanations, topic labels, and likelihood ratings.
Section 1: Most repeated topics
- Lexis and structure
- Sentence completion
- Synonyms and antonyms in context
- Comprehension and summary
- Registers and idiomatic expressions
- Oral English: vowels, consonants, stress, homophones
- Sentence interpretation
- Reading-text / literary understanding
Section 2: This year's likely focus areas
High priority: Lexis and structure, Comprehension and summary, Oral forms, Idioms, registers, and sentence meaning
Medium priority: Punctuation and capitalization, General literary understanding, Less frequent concord traps
Low priority: Rare pronunciation exceptions, Uncommon register items
Section 3: 500 original questions
Questions are ordered broadly from higher-yield areas to lower-frequency areas within the subject.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 2Question 1 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Neither the principal nor the teachers _____ ready for the inspection.
A. has been
B. is
C. were
D. was
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the noun nearest to it; 'teachers' is plural.
Question 2 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Either the chairman or his assistants _____ to blame for the error.
A. is
B. has been
C. was
D. are
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject 'assistants', which is plural.
Question 3 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Each of the candidates _____ given a registration number.
A. were
B. have been
C. was
D. are
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The head word is 'each', which takes a singular verb.
Question 4 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: One of the boys who _____ late has apologized.
A. was
B. is
C. has
D. were
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The relative clause refers to 'boys', so the plural verb 'were' is required.
Question 5 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The committee _____ its report tomorrow.
A. submit
B. are submitting
C. have submitted
D. submits
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A collective noun acting as a unit takes a singular verb.
Question 6 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Bread and butter _____ his usual breakfast.
A. were
B. are
C. is
D. have been
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: When two nouns express one idea, they take a singular verb.
Question 7 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The news _____ encouraging this morning.
A. are
B. have been
C. is
D. were
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Though it ends in -s, 'news' is singular.
Question 8 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Everybody in the hall _____ asked to remain seated.
A. was
B. have been
C. were
D. are
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indefinite pronouns like 'everybody' take singular verbs.
Question 9 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: A number of students _____ absent yesterday.
A. is
B. has been
C. were
D. was
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 3Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The phrase 'a number of' takes a plural verb.
Question 10 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The number of applicants _____ increased sharply.
A. are
B. have
C. were
D. has
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The subject is 'number', which is singular.
Question 11 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: No sooner had the bell rung than the pupils _____ into the hall.
A. were trooping
B. had trooped
C. troop
D. trooped
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: After 'had rung', simple past fits the completed action.
Question 12 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Hardly had she entered when the audience _____ clapping.
A. starts
B. start
C. started
D. had started
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The sequence 'Hardly had... when...' normally takes the simple past after 'when'
.
Question 13 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Ten kilometres _____ a long distance to walk every morning.
A. were
B. have been
C. are
D. is
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distances treated as a single quantity take singular verbs.
Question 14 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: My trousers _____ too tight for me.
A. are
B. is
C. has been
D. was
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Plural-only nouns like 'trousers' take plural verbs.
Question 15 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Not only the driver but also the passengers _____ injured.
A. has been
B. were
C. is
D. was
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer plural subject 'passengers'
.
Question 16 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The list of items _____ on the table.
A. are
B. have been
C. were
D. is
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The subject is 'list', not 'items'
.
Question 17 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Many a student _____ made the same mistake.
A. have
B. were
C. has
D. are
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The expression 'many a' takes a singular verb.
Question 18 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The jury _____ unable to reach a unanimous decision.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 4A. are
B. have
C. were
D. was
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In standard JAMB-style concord, the jury is treated as singular here.
Question 19 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: One-third of the water _____ already evaporated.
A. has
B. have
C. are
D. were
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The fraction refers to the singular noun 'water'
.
Question 20 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: One-third of the workers _____ already been paid.
A. have
B. is
C. was
D. has
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The fraction refers to the plural noun 'workers'
.
Question 21 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Neither of the answers _____ correct.
A. is
B. have been
C. were
D. are
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The pronoun 'neither' takes a singular verb.
Question 22 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: What he needs most _____ patience and practice.
A. are
B. have been
C. were
D. is
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The subject clause 'What he needs most' is singular.
Question 23 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The cattle _____ grazing in the field.
A. was
B. has been
C. are
D. is
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cattle is treated as a plural noun.
Question 24 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Physics _____ my favourite subject.
A. were
B. is
C. are
D. have been
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Names of academic subjects ending in -s are singular.
Question 25 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: A pair of scissors _____ on the desk.
A. are
B. have
C. is
D. were
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The subject is 'pair', which is singular.
Question 26 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The rich _____ not always happy.
A. has been
B. was
C. is
D. are
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 5Explanation: Adjectives used as plural nouns take plural verbs.
Question 27 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: There _____ several reasons for the delay.
A. is
B. has been
C. are
D. was
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The real subject 'reasons' is plural.
Question 28 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: There _____ a serious reason for the protest.
A. have been
B. are
C. is
D. were
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The real subject 'reason' is singular.
Question 29 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The quality of the mangoes _____ poor.
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. have
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The subject is 'quality', which is singular.
Question 30 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: More than one candidate _____ involved in the incident.
A. are
B. was
C. have been
D. were
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The expression 'more than one' usually takes a singular verb.
Question 31 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: To travel by night _____ risky on that road.
A. is
B. have been
C. were
D. are
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An infinitive phrase used as subject takes a singular verb.
Question 32 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Collecting old coins _____ his hobby.
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. have been
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A gerund phrase used as subject takes a singular verb.
Question 33 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The manager, together with his clerks, _____ attending the seminar.
A. are
B. have
C. is
D. were
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The phrase 'together with his clerks' does not change the singular subject.
Question 34 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The furniture in this room _____ beautifully arranged.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. have been
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Furniture' is an uncountable noun and takes a singular verb.
Question 35 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: None of the milk _____ wasted.
A. were
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 6B. are
C. have been
D. was
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The noun 'milk' is singular/uncountable here.
Question 36 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: None of the books _____ missing.
A. was
B. is
C. has
D. are
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: With a plural noun like 'books', plural agreement is acceptable and expected here.
Question 37 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Either of the roads _____ suitable for the trip.
A. is
B. were
C. are
D. have been
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Either' takes a singular verb.
Question 38 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The police _____ investigating the robbery.
A. is
B. are
C. has been
D. was
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Police' takes a plural verb.
Question 39 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Her earnings _____ enough to support the family.
A. has
B. is
C. was
D. are
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Plural noun form takes plural agreement here.
Question 40 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The audience _____ silent throughout the performance.
A. are
B. were
C. was
D. have
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As a collective acting as one body, 'audience' takes a singular verb.
Question 41 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: If the workers had been informed early, they _____ the meeting.
A. will attend
B. would attend
C. would have attended
D. attended
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A past unreal condition takes 'would have' + past participle.
Question 42 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: If she studies harder, she _____ the scholarship.
A. wins
B. would win
C. won
D. will win
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A real future condition takes simple present in the if-clause and 'will' in the main clause.
Question 43 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: By this time tomorrow, the team _____ the project.
A. would complete
B. will have completed
C. has completed
D. completes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The action will be completed before a future point, so future perfect is needed.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 7Question 44 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: When we got to the station, the train _____.
A. left
B. had left
C. was leaving
D. has left
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The earlier past action takes the past perfect.
Question 45 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: I _____ him for years before he finally recognized me.
A. have known
B. had known
C. know
D. knew
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An action that happened before another past action takes the past perfect.
Question 46 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: She has lived here _____ 2018.
A. at
B. for
C. from
D. since
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Since' is used with a starting point in time.
Question 47 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: We have waited here _____ three hours.
A. since
B. from
C. for
D. at
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'For' is used with a period of time.
Question 48 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: He speaks as if he _____ everything.
A. has known
B. knew
C. knows
D. had known
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After 'as if' for an unreal present situation, past tense is used.
Question 49 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: I wish I _____ taller.
A. am
B. was
C. have been
D. were
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The subjunctive 'were' is used after 'wish' for unreal present situations.
Question 50 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: Scarcely _____ the hall when the lights went out.
A. did we enter
B. we entered
C. have we entered
D. had we entered
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: After negative adverbials like 'scarcely', inversion is required.
Question 51 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: No sooner _____ the baby asleep than it started raining.
A. the mother had put
B. has the mother put
C. did the mother put
D. had the mother put
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: No sooner... than takes inverted past perfect.
Question 52 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: He would rather you _____ tomorrow.
A. came
B. had come
C. will come
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 8D. come
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Would rather' for preference about another person's action takes past tense.
Question 53 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: She is one of those teachers who always _____ their lessons well.
A. prepare
B. prepared
C. has prepared
D. prepares
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The clause refers to 'teachers', so the plural verb is needed.
Question 54 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: The man, as well as his sons, _____ invited.
A. are
B. was
C. have been
D. were
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'As well as his sons' does not change the singular subject.
Question 55 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: If I _____ you, I would accept the offer.
A. were
B. had been
C. am
D. was
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The subjunctive 'were' is used after 'if I were you'
.
Question 56 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: He denied _____ the money.
A. stealing
B. to steal
C. steal
D. to have stolen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The verb 'deny' is followed by a gerund.
Question 57 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: The lecturer objected to _____ interrupted.
A. be
B. been
C. have been
D. being
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The preposition 'to' is followed by a gerund; passive form is needed.
Question 58 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: Before the chairman arrived, the guests _____.
A. have settled down
B. were settling down
C. settled down
D. had settled down
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The action happened before another past event.
Question 59 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: He used to _____ there every weekend.
A. went
B. go
C. gone
D. going
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Used to' is followed by the base form of the verb.
Question 60 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: This is the first time I _____ such a powerful speech.
A. had heard
B. hear
C. heard
D. have heard
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: With 'This is the first time...', the present perfect is used.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 9Question 61 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: It is high time the government _____ decisive action.
A. has taken
B. take
C. took
D. takes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The expression 'It is high time' takes past tense.
Question 62 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: The teacher insisted that every student _____ present.
A. is
B. are
C. be
D. was
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: After verbs of insistence, the subjunctive base form is used.
Question 63 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: Had he listened to advice, he _____ into trouble.
A. would not have fallen
B. will not fall
C. did not fall
D. would not fall
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An inverted past unreal condition takes 'would not have' + past participle.
Question 64 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: After _____ the letter, she burst into tears.
A. having read
B. reading
C. to read
D. read
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A preposition is followed by a gerund; 'reading' is the neatest option here.
Question 65 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: You need not _____ at once.
A. replied
B. to reply
C. reply
D. replying
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A modal auxiliary is followed by the base form.
Question 66 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: The match _____ before we got there.
A. began
B. has begun
C. had begun
D. was beginning
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The beginning took place before another past action.
Question 67 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: She was too tired _____ continue.
A. that
B. for
C. so
D. to
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The pattern is 'too + adjective + to + verb'
.
Question 68 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: We look forward to _____ from you soon.
A. hearing
B. have heard
C. hear
D. heard
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Look forward to' takes a gerund.
Question 69 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: Having _____ the form, he submitted it immediately.
A. complete
B. completed
C. completing
D. been completing
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 10Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After 'having', the past participle is used.
Question 70 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: If the rain _____, the farmers will rejoice.
A. would continue
B. continued
C. will continue
D. continues
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In a real future condition, the if-clause takes the simple present.
Question 71 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: She _____ television when the visitors arrived.
A. watched
B. had watched
C. was watching
D. has watched
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The past continuous shows an action in progress when another occurred.
Question 72 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: I would have helped you if you _____ me earlier.
A. have told
B. would tell
C. had told
D. told
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A past unreal conditional takes past perfect in the if-clause.
Question 73 Topic: Tense and Conditional Structures Likelihood: High
Question: Until he apologized, I _____ to him.
A. have not spoken
B. had not spoken
C. was not speaking
D. did not speak
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The past perfect negative is used to show the prior action.
Question 74 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The driver was charged _____ dangerous driving.
A. of
B. with
C. for
D. on
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct collocation is 'charged with'
.
Question 75 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: She is good _____ Mathematics.
A. on
B. with
C. in
D. at
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct expression is 'good at'
.
Question 76 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The students congratulated him _____ his success.
A. for
B. about
C. with
D. on
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: We say 'congratulate someone on something'
.
Question 77 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He is absent _____ school today.
A. off
B. to
C. at
D. from
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The normal expression is 'absent from school'
.
Question 78 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The witness objected _____ the question.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 11A. to
B. for
C. against
D. with
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The verb 'object' takes the preposition 'to'
.
Question 79 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He is married _____ a medical doctor.
A. by
B. to
C. on
D. with
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct phrase is 'married to'
.
Question 80 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The manager was angry _____ the careless clerk.
A. at
B. with
C. by
D. to
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: We say 'angry with someone'
.
Question 81 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The old man has great affection _____ his grandchildren.
A. for
B. to
C. on
D. with
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct collocation is 'affection for'
.
Question 82 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The girl insisted _____ paying for the meal.
A. on
B. for
C. to
D. at
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The verb 'insist' takes 'on'
.
Question 83 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The villagers appealed _____ the governor for help.
A. on
B. at
C. to
D. with
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct pattern is 'appealed to the governor'
.
Question 84 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: I prefer coffee _____ tea in the morning.
A. with
B. over
C. to
D. than
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The standard pattern is 'prefer X to Y'
.
Question 85 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The principal is responsible _____ discipline in the school.
A. to
B. on
C. for
D. with
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: We say 'responsible for'
.
Question 86 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: She takes pride _____ her neat handwriting.
A. on
B. in
C. for
D. with
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 12Explanation: The expression is 'take pride in'
.
Question 87 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The workers protested _____ the unfair deduction.
A. for
B. with
C. about
D. against
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct collocation is 'protest against'
.
Question 88 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He was prevented _____ entering the hall.
A. with
B. to
C. from
D. against
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The verb 'prevent' takes 'from'
.
Question 89 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: Do not interfere _____ other people's affairs.
A. to
B. with
C. for
D. on
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct collocation is 'interfere with'
.
Question 90 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The boys were eager _____ the holiday to begin.
A. at
B. for
C. about
D. with
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct expression is 'eager for'
.
Question 91 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: My father has no interest _____ football.
A. with
B. for
C. on
D. in
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The noun 'interest' takes 'in'
.
Question 92 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The child was accused _____ stealing mangoes.
A. from
B. for
C. of
D. with
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: We say 'accused of'
.
Question 93 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: Our visit was postponed _____ next week.
A. until
B. by
C. for
D. to
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Postponed until next week' is the correct structure.
Question 94 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He arrived _____ the airport just before noon.
A. at
B. to
C. on
D. in
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: We arrive 'at' specific places like the airport.
Question 95 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The report was divided _____ three sections.
A. to
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 13B. into
C. in
D. by
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The phrase is 'divided into'
.
Question 96 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The medicine had no effect _____ the patient.
A. at
B. to
C. for
D. on
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct collocation is 'effect on'
.
Question 97 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The teacher was pleased _____ the improvement shown by the class.
A. for
B. on
C. to
D. with
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: We say 'pleased with'
.
Question 98 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: She apologized _____ the delay.
A. with
B. to
C. for
D. on
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pattern is 'apologized for the delay'
.
Question 99 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The interview will begin _____ 9:00 a.m.
A. on
B. in
C. by
D. at
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: We use 'at' with clock time.
Question 100 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The festival usually holds _____ August.
A. by
B. on
C. in
D. at
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Months take the preposition 'in'
.
Question 101 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The meeting is scheduled _____ Monday morning.
A. at
B. for
C. on
D. in
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Scheduled for' is the natural collocation here.
Question 102 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He has been absent _____ work since Tuesday.
A. off
B. from
C. at
D. to
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct expression is 'absent from work'
.
Question 103 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: She was trembling _____ fear.
A. for
B. with
C. in
D. by
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiomatic expression is 'trembling with fear'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 14Question 104 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The luggage belongs _____ that passenger.
A. for
B. by
C. with
D. to
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The verb 'belong' takes 'to'
.
Question 105 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The speaker called _____ calm during the protest.
A. to
B. for
C. on
D. at
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: We say 'call for calm'
.
Question 106 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The visitors were impressed _____ the school's facilities.
A. at
B. with
C. by
D. to
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pattern is 'impressed by' something.
Question 107 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: The project depends _____ timely funding.
A. for
B. on
C. of
D. with
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Depends on' is the correct collocation.
Question 108 Topic: Prepositions and Collocations Likelihood: High
Question: He was found guilty _____ fraud.
A. about
B. for
C. with
D. of
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The expression is 'guilty of'
.
Question 109 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was abundant, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'abundant' is
A. scarce
B. uncertain
C. plentiful
D. costly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'abundant' is closest in meaning to 'plentiful'
.
Question 110 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was brief, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'brief' is
A. hidden
B. careless
C. short
D. faint
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'brief' is closest in meaning to 'short'
.
Question 111 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was cautious, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'cautious' is
A. careful
B. noisy
C. greedy
D. joyful
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'cautious' is closest in meaning to 'careful'
.
Question 112 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was commend, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'commend' is
A. refuse
B. praise
C. punish
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 15D. delay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'commend' is closest in meaning to 'praise'
.
Question 113 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was diligent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'diligent' is
A. careless
B. slow
C. wasteful
D. hardworking
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'diligent' is closest in meaning to 'hardworking'
.
Question 114 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was eliminate, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'eliminate' is
A. delay
B. admire
C. increase
D. remove
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'eliminate' is closest in meaning to 'remove'
.
Question 115 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was feasible, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'feasible' is
A. strange
B. expensive
C. possible
D. urgent
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'feasible' is closest in meaning to 'possible'
.
Question 116 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was frugal, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'frugal' is
A. nervous
B. economical
C. lavish
D. careless
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'frugal' is closest in meaning to 'economical'
.
Question 117 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was hostile, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'hostile' is
A. patient
B. obedient
C. unfriendly
D. cheerful
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'hostile' is closest in meaning to 'unfriendly'
.
Question 118 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was immense, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'immense' is
A. hidden
B. steady
C. brief
D. huge
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'immense' is closest in meaning to 'huge'
.
Question 119 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was keen, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'keen' is
A. silent
B. crooked
C. eager
D. bitter
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'keen' is closest in meaning to 'eager'
.
Question 120 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was lucrative, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'lucrative' is
A. expensive
B. profitable
C. ordinary
D. dangerous
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'lucrative' is closest in meaning to 'profitable'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 16Question 121 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was obsolete, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'obsolete' is
A. outdated
B. careful
C. useful
D. modern
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'obsolete' is closest in meaning to 'outdated'
.
Question 122 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was prompt, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'prompt' is
A. careless
B. immediate
C. uncertain
D. late
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'prompt' is closest in meaning to 'immediate'
.
Question 123 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was reluctant, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'reluctant' is
A. eager
B. friendly
C. unwilling
D. certain
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'reluctant' is closest in meaning to 'unwilling'
.
Question 124 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was scarce, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'scarce' is
A. broad
B. ready
C. rare
D. useful
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'scarce' is closest in meaning to 'rare'
.
Question 125 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was subtle, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'subtle' is
A. public
B. rapid
C. slight
D. harsh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'subtle' is closest in meaning to 'slight'
.
Question 126 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was tedious, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'tedious' is
A. careful
B. boring
C. pleasant
D. useful
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'tedious' is closest in meaning to 'boring'
.
Question 127 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was vital, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'vital' is
A. cheap
B. hidden
C. essential
D. ordinary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'vital' is closest in meaning to 'essential'
.
Question 128 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was witty, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'witty' is
A. clever
B. heavy
C. silent
D. bitter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'witty' is closest in meaning to 'clever'
.
Question 129 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was ardent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'ardent' is
A. brief
B. cold
C. careless
D. passionate
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 17Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'ardent' is closest in meaning to 'passionate'
.
Question 130 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was benevolent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'benevolent' is
A. kind
B. greedy
C. hostile
D. rude
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'benevolent' is closest in meaning to 'kind'
.
Question 131 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was conspicuous, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'conspicuous' is
A. modest
B. secret
C. ordinary
D. noticeable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'conspicuous' is closest in meaning to 'noticeable'
.
Question 132 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was deceive, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'deceive' is
A. mislead
B. assist
C. correct
D. comfort
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'deceive' is closest in meaning to 'mislead'
.
Question 133 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was erratic, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'erratic' is
A. careful
B. steady
C. proper
D. unpredictable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'erratic' is closest in meaning to 'unpredictable'
.
Question 134 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was futile, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'futile' is
A. useless
B. costly
C. urgent
D. hopeful
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'futile' is closest in meaning to 'useless'
.
Question 135 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was grim, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'grim' is
A. cheerful
B. stern
C. loose
D. careless
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'grim' is closest in meaning to 'stern'
.
Question 136 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was humble, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'humble' is
A. proud
B. modest
C. violent
D. strict
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'humble' is closest in meaning to 'modest'
.
Question 137 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was intricate, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'intricate' is
A. direct
B. simple
C. complex
D. pleasant
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'intricate' is closest in meaning to 'complex'
.
Question 138 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was jubilant, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'jubilant' is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 18A. angry
B. careful
C. uncertain
D. joyful
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'jubilant' is closest in meaning to 'joyful'
.
Question 139 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was notorious, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'notorious' is
A. modest
B. famous for bad reasons
C. honourable
D. kind
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'notorious' is closest in meaning to 'famous for bad reasons'
.
Question 140 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was prudent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'prudent' is
A. wise
B. wasteful
C. harsh
D. fearful
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'prudent' is closest in meaning to 'wise'
.
Question 141 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was robust, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'robust' is
A. timid
B. weak
C. tiny
D. strong
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'robust' is closest in meaning to 'strong'
.
Question 142 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was sincere, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'sincere' is
A. honest
B. deceitful
C. hostile
D. careless
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'sincere' is closest in meaning to 'honest'
.
Question 143 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was tranquil, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'tranquil' is
A. calm
B. bitter
C. noisy
D. hasty
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'tranquil' is closest in meaning to 'calm'
.
Question 144 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was vivid, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'vivid' is
A. brief
B. false
C. clear
D. dull
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'vivid' is closest in meaning to 'clear'
.
Question 145 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was zealous, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'zealous' is
A. lazy
B. enthusiastic
C. uncertain
D. silent
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'zealous' is closest in meaning to 'enthusiastic'
.
Question 146 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was apparent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'apparent' is
A. complex
B. obvious
C. hidden
D. careless
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 19Explanation: 'apparent' is closest in meaning to 'obvious'
.
Question 147 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was concede, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'concede' is
A. delay
B. admit
C. deny
D. punish
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'concede' is closest in meaning to 'admit'
.
Question 148 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was frank, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'frank' is
A. open
B. shy
C. secret
D. careless
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'frank' is closest in meaning to 'open'
.
Question 149 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was graceful, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'graceful' is
A. elegant
B. dangerous
C. awkward
D. angry
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'graceful' is closest in meaning to 'elegant'
.
Question 150 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was harass, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'harass' is
A. trouble
B. comfort
C. praise
D. protect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'harass' is closest in meaning to 'trouble'
.
Question 151 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was indifferent, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'indifferent' is
A. hopeful
B. unconcerned
C. careful
D. eager
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'indifferent' is closest in meaning to 'unconcerned'
.
Question 152 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was meagre, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'meagre' is
A. small
B. large
C. sharp
D. careless
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'meagre' is closest in meaning to 'small'
.
Question 153 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was resolute, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'resolute' is
A. uncertain
B. fearful
C. wasteful
D. determined
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'resolute' is closest in meaning to 'determined'
.
Question 154 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was upright, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'upright' is
A. weak
B. silent
C. honest
D. crooked
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'upright' is closest in meaning to 'honest'
.
Question 155 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was versatile, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'versatile' is
A. rigid
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 20B. narrow
C. careless
D. multi-skilled
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'versatile' is closest in meaning to 'multi-skilled'
.
Question 156 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was weary, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'weary' is
A. fresh
B. tired
C. hostile
D. simple
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'weary' is closest in meaning to 'tired'
.
Question 157 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was yield, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'yield' is
A. reject
B. produce
C. hide
D. delay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'yield' is closest in meaning to 'produce'
.
Question 158 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: In the sentence, 'Her response was amicable, not forced,' the word closest in meaning to 'amicable' is
A. friendly
B. bitter
C. hostile
D. uncertain
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'amicable' is closest in meaning to 'friendly'
.
Question 159 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a abundant response to the proposal.
A. fresh
B. large
C. scarce
D. plentiful
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'abundant' is 'scarce'
.
Question 160 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a accept response to the proposal.
A. welcome
B. admit
C. agree
D. reject
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'accept' is 'reject'
.
Question 161 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a artificial response to the proposal.
A. natural
B. useful
C. beautiful
D. modern
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'artificial' is 'natural'
.
Question 162 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a bold response to the proposal.
A. strong
B. firm
C. brave
D. timid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'bold' is 'timid'
.
Question 163 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a complex response to the proposal.
A. crowded
B. expensive
C. difficult
D. simple
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'complex' is 'simple'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 21Question 164 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a dawn response to the proposal.
A. dusk
B. morning
C. noon
D. sunrise
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'dawn' is 'dusk'
.
Question 165 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a expand response to the proposal.
A. contract
B. lengthen
C. multiply
D. broaden
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'expand' is 'contract'
.
Question 166 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a fertile response to the proposal.
A. remote
B. green
C. barren
D. humid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'fertile' is 'barren'
.
Question 167 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a frequent response to the proposal.
A. brief
B. rare
C. regular
D. full
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'frequent' is 'rare'
.
Question 168 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a generous response to the proposal.
A. stingy
B. polite
C. wise
D. modest
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'generous' is 'stingy'
.
Question 169 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a honest response to the proposal.
A. dishonest
B. friendly
C. open
D. careful
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'honest' is 'dishonest'
.
Question 170 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a innocent response to the proposal.
A. plain
B. young
C. naive
D. guilty
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'innocent' is 'guilty'
.
Question 171 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a major response to the proposal.
A. minor
B. main
C. popular
D. chief
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'major' is 'minor'
.
Question 172 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a optimistic response to the proposal.
A. hopeful
B. pessimistic
C. bold
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 22D. cheerful
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'optimistic' is 'pessimistic'
.
Question 173 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a permanent response to the proposal.
A. peaceful
B. important
C. temporary
D. lasting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'permanent' is 'temporary'
.
Question 174 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a quiet response to the proposal.
A. silent
B. noisy
C. calm
D. private
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'quiet' is 'noisy'
.
Question 175 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a rigid response to the proposal.
A. firm
B. fixed
C. flexible
D. strong
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'rigid' is 'flexible'
.
Question 176 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a scarcity response to the proposal.
A. abundance
B. wealth
C. hunger
D. need
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'scarcity' is 'abundance'
.
Question 177 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a superior response to the proposal.
A. better
B. higher
C. inferior
D. firmer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'superior' is 'inferior'
.
Question 178 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a victory response to the proposal.
A. honour
B. defeat
C. success
D. courage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'victory' is 'defeat'
.
Question 179 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a accurate response to the proposal.
A. careless
B. inaccurate
C. neat
D. fast
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'accurate' is 'inaccurate'
.
Question 180 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a advance response to the proposal.
A. retreat
B. promote
C. improve
D. support
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'advance' is 'retreat'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 23Question 181 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a brisk response to the proposal.
A. active
B. slow
C. careful
D. light
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'brisk' is 'slow'
.
Question 182 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a create response to the proposal.
A. design
B. build
C. destroy
D. improve
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'create' is 'destroy'
.
Question 183 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a domestic response to the proposal.
A. family
B. foreign
C. local
D. rural
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'domestic' is 'foreign'
.
Question 184 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a empty response to the proposal.
A. full
B. clean
C. open
D. hollow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'empty' is 'full'
.
Question 185 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a fragile response to the proposal.
A. small
B. strong
C. rough
D. light
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'fragile' is 'strong'
.
Question 186 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a genuine response to the proposal.
A. polished
B. bright
C. costly
D. fake
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'genuine' is 'fake'
.
Question 187 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a harmful response to the proposal.
A. toxic
B. dangerous
C. painful
D. beneficial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'harmful' is 'beneficial'
.
Question 188 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a liberal response to the proposal.
A. friendly
B. conservative
C. open
D. free
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'liberal' is 'conservative'
.
Question 189 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a maximum response to the proposal.
A. farthest
B. largest
C. highest
D. minimum
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 24Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'maximum' is 'minimum'
.
Question 190 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a narrow response to the proposal.
A. thick
B. tiny
C. broad
D. short
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'narrow' is 'broad'
.
Question 191 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a offend response to the proposal.
A. please
B. annoy
C. injure
D. disgrace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'offend' is 'please'
.
Question 192 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a permit response to the proposal.
A. forbid
B. support
C. allow
D. request
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'permit' is 'forbid'
.
Question 193 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a rural response to the proposal.
A. remote
B. plain
C. local
D. urban
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'rural' is 'urban'
.
Question 194 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a scarce response to the proposal.
A. empty
B. brief
C. rare
D. plentiful
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'scarce' is 'plentiful'
.
Question 195 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a transparent response to the proposal.
A. clear
B. pure
C. bright
D. opaque
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'transparent' is 'opaque'
.
Question 196 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a victim response to the proposal.
A. loser
B. leader
C. winner
D. offender
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'victim' is 'offender'
.
Question 197 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a volatile response to the proposal.
A. dangerous
B. quick
C. light
D. stable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'volatile' is 'stable'
.
Question 198 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a withdraw response to the proposal.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 25A. reduce
B. escape
C. deposit
D. remove
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'withdraw' is 'deposit'
.
Question 199 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a mature response to the proposal.
A. adult
B. tall
C. ripe
D. immature
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'mature' is 'immature'
.
Question 200 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: High
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a modest response to the proposal.
A. arrogant
B. simple
C. plain
D. calm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'modest' is 'arrogant'
.
Question 201 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a praise response to the proposal.
A. admire
B. approve
C. criticize
D. reward
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'praise' is 'criticize'
.
Question 202 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a respect response to the proposal.
A. value
B. despise
C. love
D. honour
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'respect' is 'despise'
.
Question 203 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a tidy response to the proposal.
A. fresh
B. orderly
C. clean
D. untidy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'tidy' is 'untidy'
.
Question 204 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a urgent response to the proposal.
A. important
B. trivial
C. serious
D. rapid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'urgent' is 'trivial'
.
Question 205 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a visible response to the proposal.
A. open
B. obvious
C. bright
D. invisible
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'visible' is 'invisible'
.
Question 206 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a wisdom response to the proposal.
A. virtue
B. knowledge
C. experience
D. folly
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 26Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'wisdom' is 'folly'
.
Question 207 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a yielding response to the proposal.
A. soft
B. patient
C. polite
D. stubborn
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'yielding' is 'stubborn'
.
Question 208 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Medium
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The manager gave a zeal response to the proposal.
A. apathy
B. energy
C. joy
D. speed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word opposite in meaning to 'zeal' is 'apathy'
.
Question 209 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to spill the beans,' the expression means to
A. speak carelessly
B. cook the meal
C. reveal the secret
D. waste resources
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'spill the beans' means 'reveal the secret'
.
Question 210 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to once in a blue moon,' the expression means to
A. unexpectedly
B. very quickly
C. at night
D. very rarely
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'once in a blue moon' means 'very rarely'
.
Question 211 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to beat about the bush,' the expression means to
A. act violently
B. speak boldly
C. clear the road
D. avoid the main point
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'beat about the bush' means 'avoid the main point'
.
Question 212 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to hit the nail on the head,' the expression means to
A. damage a tool
B. say exactly the right thing
C. work carelessly
D. miss the point
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'hit the nail on the head' means 'say exactly the right thing'
.
Question 213 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to a blessing in disguise,' the expression means to
A. an expensive gift
B. a hidden enemy
C. something good that seemed bad at first
D. a confusing decision
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'a blessing in disguise' means 'something good that seemed bad at first'
.
Question 214 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to burn the midnight oil,' the expression means to
A. work late into the night
B. sleep very little
C. waste electricity
D. start a fire
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'burn the midnight oil' means 'work late into the night'
.
Question 215 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to cost an arm and a leg,' the expression means to
A. be unfair
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 27B. be very expensive
C. be violent
D. cause injury
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'cost an arm and a leg' means 'be very expensive'
.
Question 216 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to at sixes and sevens,' the expression means to
A. strictly equal
B. very early
C. fully organized
D. in a state of confusion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'at sixes and sevens' means 'in a state of confusion'
.
Question 217 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to keep an eye on,' the expression means to
A. watch carefully
B. ignore completely
C. look suspicious
D. close the eyes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'keep an eye on' means 'watch carefully'
.
Question 218 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to call it a day,' the expression means to
A. travel in daylight
B. celebrate a festival
C. stop working on something
D. wake up early
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'call it a day' means 'stop working on something'
.
Question 219 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to in hot water,' the expression means to
A. working hard
B. in a bath
C. in trouble
D. feeling warm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'in hot water' means 'in trouble'
.
Question 220 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to on cloud nine,' the expression means to
A. extremely happy
B. very tired
C. slightly worried
D. very confused
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'on cloud nine' means 'extremely happy'
.
Question 221 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to pull someone's leg,' the expression means to
A. tease or joke with someone
B. help someone run
C. drag a person away
D. injure someone
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'pull someone's leg' means 'tease or joke with someone'
.
Question 222 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to under the weather,' the expression means to
A. outside in the rain
B. eager to travel
C. very poor
D. feeling ill
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'under the weather' means 'feeling ill'
.
Question 223 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to a piece of cake,' the expression means to
A. a sweet gift
B. a small reward
C. something expensive
D. very easy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'a piece of cake' means 'very easy'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 28Question 224 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to break the ice,' the expression means to
A. crack frozen water
B. remove initial tension
C. start a quarrel
D. make people angry
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'break the ice' means 'remove initial tension'
.
Question 225 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to in black and white,' the expression means to
A. in writing
B. clearly visible
C. painted in two colours
D. strictly legal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'in black and white' means 'in writing'
.
Question 226 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to turn a blind eye,' the expression means to
A. go blind suddenly
B. look away in fear
C. ignore deliberately
D. wink at someone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'turn a blind eye' means 'ignore deliberately'
.
Question 227 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to the ball is in your court,' the expression means to
A. someone else must decide
B. the game has ended
C. it is your turn to act
D. you have won already
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'the ball is in your court' means 'it is your turn to act'
.
Question 228 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to add fuel to the fire,' the expression means to
A. make a bad situation worse
B. support a good cause
C. increase speed
D. cook with more heat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'add fuel to the fire' means 'make a bad situation worse'
.
Question 229 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to throw in the towel,' the expression means to
A. admit defeat
B. clean a surface
C. prepare for sports
D. start a quarrel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'throw in the towel' means 'admit defeat'
.
Question 230 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to keep body and soul together,' the expression means to
A. survive with little money
B. exercise regularly
C. stay happy
D. travel frequently
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'keep body and soul together' means 'survive with little money'
.
Question 231 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to by the skin of one's teeth,' the expression means to
A. narrowly
B. with pain
C. without effort
D. with pride
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'by the skin of one's teeth' means 'narrowly'
.
Question 232 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to rain cats and dogs,' the expression means to
A. rain heavily
B. rains lightly
C. rains with wind
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 29D. rains suddenly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'rain cats and dogs' means 'rain heavily'
.
Question 233 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to let the cat out of the bag,' the expression means to
A. act carelessly
B. make a mistake
C. disclose a secret
D. release an animal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'let the cat out of the bag' means 'disclose a secret'
.
Question 234 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to sit on the fence,' the expression means to
A. rest on a wall
B. change one's seat
C. avoid taking sides
D. watch from far away
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'sit on the fence' means 'avoid taking sides'
.
Question 235 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to jump the gun,' the expression means to
A. act violently
B. win a race
C. start too early
D. use a weapon
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'jump the gun' means 'start too early'
.
Question 236 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to cut corners,' the expression means to
A. do something cheaply or badly
B. take a short route
C. reduce expenses wisely
D. trim edges neatly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'cut corners' means 'do something cheaply or badly'
.
Question 237 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to take with a pinch of salt,' the expression means to
A. believe completely
B. eat carefully
C. accept gratefully
D. regard with some doubt
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'take with a pinch of salt' means 'regard with some doubt'
.
Question 238 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to go the extra mile,' the expression means to
A. waste time
B. make special effort
C. arrive late
D. travel longer distance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'go the extra mile' means 'make special effort'
.
Question 239 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to face the music,' the expression means to
A. perform on stage
B. celebrate loudly
C. accept punishment or criticism
D. listen to a song
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'face the music' means 'accept punishment or criticism'
.
Question 240 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to keep one's fingers crossed,' the expression means to
A. stay nervous
B. pray silently
C. hope for good luck
D. hide one's hands
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'keep one's fingers crossed' means 'hope for good luck'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 30Question 241 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to bark up the wrong tree,' the expression means to
A. chase a dog
B. follow a wrong course
C. search noisily
D. climb badly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'bark up the wrong tree' means 'follow a wrong course'
.
Question 242 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to a storm in a teacup,' the expression means to
A. a weather warning
B. a dangerous plan
C. a lot of anger over a small matter
D. a noisy celebration
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'a storm in a teacup' means 'a lot of anger over a small matter'
.
Question 243 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to see eye to eye,' the expression means to
A. agree completely
B. compete directly
C. watch carefully
D. quarrel often
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The idiom 'see eye to eye' means 'agree completely'
.
Question 244 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to throw cold water on,' the expression means to
A. wash quickly
B. discourage
C. quench a fire
D. punish severely
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'throw cold water on' means 'discourage'
.
Question 245 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to hit below the belt,' the expression means to
A. speak politely
B. move carefully
C. fight well
D. act unfairly
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'hit below the belt' means 'act unfairly'
.
Question 246 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to make both ends meet,' the expression means to
A. travel far
B. complete a task
C. solve a puzzle
D. manage one's income
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'make both ends meet' means 'manage one's income'
.
Question 247 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to up in the air,' the expression means to
A. flying high
B. clearly visible
C. uncertain
D. angrily spoken
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'up in the air' means 'uncertain'
.
Question 248 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Medium
Question: In the sentence, 'After weeks of hesitation, Tunde decided to turn over a new leaf,' the expression means to
A. change a house
B. begin farming
C. start behaving better
D. open a book
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The idiom 'turn over a new leaf' means 'start behaving better'
.
Question 249 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of banking?
A. stethoscope
B. syllable
C. chlorophyll
D. overdraft
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 31Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'overdraft' is a term associated with banking.
Question 250 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of medicine?
A. stethoscope
B. ledger
C. valency
D. tripod
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'stethoscope' is a term associated with medicine.
Question 251 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of law?
A. ventilation
B. litigation
C. evaporation
D. fertilization
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'litigation' is a term associated with law.
Question 252 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of journalism?
A. headline
B. wicket
C. test tube
D. stanza
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'headline' is a term associated with journalism.
Question 253 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of agriculture?
A. cipher
B. stethoscope
C. manure
D. chorus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'manure' is a term associated with agriculture.
Question 254 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of sports?
A. enzyme
B. offside
C. plaintiff
D. invoice
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'offside' is a term associated with sports.
Question 255 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of commerce?
A. headline
B. vaccine
C. invoice
D. hypha
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'invoice' is a term associated with commerce.
Question 256 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of literature?
A. capsule
B. budget
C. stanza
D. fungus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'stanza' is a term associated with literature.
Question 257 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of government?
A. catalogue
B. cabinet
C. suture
D. capsule
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'cabinet' is a term associated with government.
Question 258 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of building?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 32A. editor
B. budget
C. scaffold
D. enzyme
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'scaffold' is a term associated with building.
Question 259 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: A good summary should mainly present
A. the writer's exact wording
B. new opinions from the reader
C. the central ideas in brief form
D. every illustration from the passage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A summary condenses the main ideas only.
Question 260 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: In a comprehension passage, the writer's tone may be best described by
A. the attitude shown through the choice of words
B. the punctuation marks only
C. the number of paragraphs used
D. the length of the passage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tone refers to the writer's attitude as revealed in language.
Question 261 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The purpose of a topic sentence in a paragraph is to
A. introduce a quotation
B. repeat every detail
C. end the paragraph sharply
D. state the main idea of the paragraph
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A topic sentence announces the controlling idea.
Question 262 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: When a question asks for an inference, the reader is expected to
A. criticize the writer
B. copy a line from the passage
C. draw a conclusion from clues in the passage
D. count the number of ideas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An inference is an implied conclusion based on evidence.
Question 263 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: A passage that aims to persuade readers is likely to contain
A. arguments supported by reasons
B. random expressions
C. only a list of dates
D. unrelated proverbs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Persuasive writing tries to convince through reasons or evidence.
Question 264 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The word that best helps a reader identify contrast in a passage is
A. however
B. for example
C. therefore
D. similarly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'However' commonly signals contrast.
Question 265 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The expression 'in other words' in a passage usually introduces
A. a question
B. a restatement
C. a conclusion
D. a contradiction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It signals that an idea is being rephrased.
Question 266 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: A paragraph is coherent when its sentences
A. contain difficult words
B. are all very short
C. flow logically from one to another
D. end with a question
Correct Answer: C
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 33Explanation: Coherence means logical connection and smooth flow.
Question 267 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The main purpose of scanning a passage is to
A. summarize the whole passage
B. memorize every line
C. understand the writer's tone
D. locate specific information quickly
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Scanning is used for finding specific details fast.
Question 268 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The main purpose of skimming a passage is to
A. criticize the writer
B. get the general idea quickly
C. learn all the details
D. memorize examples
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Skimming is rapid reading for gist.
Question 269 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: If a passage is described as objective, it is mainly
A. emotional and biased
B. comic and playful
C. fact-based and impartial
D. secretive and vague
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Objective writing presents facts without personal bias.
Question 270 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: In a reading passage, a supporting detail is meant to
A. change the topic
B. replace the main idea
C. develop the main idea
D. confuse the reader
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Supporting details explain or prove the main point.
Question 271 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The phrase 'the writer implies that' requires the reader to look for
A. the number of examples
B. a dictionary definition
C. the title alone
D. an unstated meaning
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An implication is suggested rather than directly stated.
Question 272 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: A paragraph that compares two ideas will likely use expressions such as
A. meanwhile and suddenly
B. yet and because
C. firstly and finally
D. similarly and likewise
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Comparison markers show similarity.
Question 273 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The sentence that states the writer's overall controlling point is often called the
A. appendix
B. main idea
C. register
D. footnote
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The main idea is the central point the writer develops.
Question 274 Topic: Oral English - Homophones Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which pair consists of words that have the same pronunciation?
A. right / write
B. mail / flower
C. break / break
D. waist / allowed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'right' and 'write' are homophones.
Question 275 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The students were warned not to _____ the school rules.
A. oppose against
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 34B. violate
C. damage
D. break into
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The natural collocation is 'violate the rules'
.
Question 276 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The witness gave a very _____ description of the suspect.
A. timid
B. vivid
C. fragile
D. casual
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Vivid' means clear and lively.
Question 277 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chairman's sudden resignation came as a _____ to everyone.
A. shock
B. practice
C. signal
D. lesson
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The common expression is 'came as a shock'
.
Question 278 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The athlete was disqualified because she had taken performance-enhancing _____.
A. tables
B. tools
C. drugs
D. foods
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The natural completion is 'drugs'
.
Question 279 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The governor promised to _____ all abandoned projects.
A. hesitate
B. combine
C. rotate
D. revive
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Revive' means bring back to life or activity.
Question 280 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The teacher advised the candidates to read the instructions _____.
A. carefulness
B. care
C. carefully
D. careless
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'read'
.
Question 281 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The villagers showed great _____ during the flood.
A. courageous
B. courage
C. encourage
D. courageously
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A noun is needed after 'great'
.
Question 282 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The committee set up a panel to _____ the matter.
A. investigate
B. investigated
C. investigation
D. investigative
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The infinitive 'to investigate' fits the structure.
Question 283 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: She felt deeply _____ by the false accusation.
A. hurt
B. hurtful
C. hurting
D. hurted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The adjective/past participle 'hurt' fits the passive meaning.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 35Question 284 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The football match was postponed due to heavy _____.
A. rains
B. rainy
C. raining
D. rainfall
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The noun 'rainfall' fits the context.
Question 285 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The doctor advised him to reduce his _____ of sugar.
A. offtake
B. consumptioned
C. entry
D. intake
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Intake' is the standard collocation.
Question 286 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The principal's speech was short but very _____.
A. inspiring
B. inspire
C. inspiration
D. inspirer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An adjective is needed to describe the speech.
Question 287 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The workers demanded better pay and improved working _____.
A. conditional
B. conditions
C. conditioning
D. condition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The plural noun 'conditions' is correct.
Question 288 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: He was praised for his _____ response to the emergency.
A. prompt
B. promptness
C. prompter
D. promptly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The adjective 'prompt' properly qualifies 'response'
.
Question 289 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The child looked at the stranger with great _____.
A. curious
B. curiously
C. curiosity
D. curiouser
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A noun is required after 'great'
.
Question 290 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The police launched a full-scale _____ into the robbery.
A. investigation
B. investigate
C. investigator
D. investigating
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The noun 'investigation' fits the sentence.
Question 291 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The company has introduced a new policy to _____ waste.
A. reduction
B. reduced
C. reduce
D. reducing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The infinitive complement needs the base form.
Question 292 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: Her explanation was so _____ that no one asked a question.
A. clear
B. clearly
C. clarity
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 36D. clearness
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An adjective is needed after 'so'
.
Question 293 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The coach's words helped to _____ the team's confidence.
A. bake
B. burst
C. boast
D. boost
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Boost' means improve or increase.
Question 294 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The speaker urged the youth to be more _____ in public affairs.
A. actively
B. act
C. active
D. activity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An adjective is needed after 'more'
.
Question 295 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: Good roads can greatly _____ trade in rural areas.
A. promotion
B. promoting
C. promote
D. promoted
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The base verb follows 'can'
.
Question 296 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The report contained several _____ recommendations.
A. useless
B. use
C. useful
D. usefully
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An adjective is needed to qualify recommendations.
Question 297 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The old building was in need of urgent _____.
A. repairing
B. repaired
C. repairs
D. repairer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The noun 'repairs' fits the phrase.
Question 298 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The speaker tried to _____ the audience with facts, not emotion.
A. persuasion
B. persuade
C. persuaded
D. persuasive
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After 'to', the base form is required.
Question 299 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The students listened _____ as the invigilator explained the rules.
A. attentive
B. attention
C. attentively
D. attentiveness
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'listened'
.
Question 300 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Only one of the applicants _____ qualified for the interview.
A. have been
B. is
C. were
D. are
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The subject is 'one', which is singular.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 37Question 301 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: The pair of shoes _____ under the bed.
A. were
B. are
C. is
D. have been
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Pair' is singular.
Question 302 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: The proceeds from the show _____ donated to charity.
A. was
B. were
C. has been
D. is
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Proceeds' takes a plural verb.
Question 303 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Mathematics _____ easier when the teacher explains it well.
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. have been
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Academic subjects take singular verbs.
Question 304 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: The cattle breeder said his herd _____ healthy.
A. were
B. are
C. was
D. have been
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The collective idea of the herd takes a singular verb here.
Question 305 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A bouquet of roses _____ on her desk.
A. have
B. was
C. were
D. are
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The subject is 'bouquet'
.
Question 306 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Fifty naira _____ too little for the fare.
A. is
B. are
C. have been
D. were
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A sum of money treated as one amount takes a singular verb.
Question 307 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: One after another, the runners _____ the finish line.
A. crossed
B. had crossed
C. crosses
D. have crossed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Simple past is suitable for the sequence of completed actions.
Question 308 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Few students _____ able to solve the last question.
A. was
B. is
C. were
D. has
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Few students' is plural.
Question 309 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: This scissors _____ blunt.
A. were
B. is
C. have been
D. are
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 38Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When preceded by 'this', standard exam usage often expects singular agreement.
Question 310 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: All the furniture _____ delivered yesterday.
A. are
B. was
C. were
D. have been
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Furniture' is uncountable and singular in agreement.
Question 311 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: The pair of trousers _____ too expensive.
A. are
B. have
C. were
D. was
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The head word 'pair' is singular.
Question 312 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Neither rain nor wind _____ stop the procession.
A. can
B. have
C. are
D. coulds
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: After the modal 'can', the base form is used.
Question 313 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: Someone _____ left a bag in the office.
A. are
B. has
C. were
D. have
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Someone' is singular and takes a singular verb.
Question 314 Topic: Concord and Structure Likelihood: Medium
Question: The owner of those cars _____ abroad.
A. is
B. were
C. have been
D. are
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The subject is 'owner', not 'cars'
.
Question 315 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The witness's account was quite _____ with the evidence before the court.
A. consist
B. consisting
C. consistency
D. consistent
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An adjective is required after 'quite'
.
Question 316 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The school introduced new measures to improve student _____.
A. attendance
B. attend
C. attending
D. attendant
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A noun is needed after 'student'
.
Question 317 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The flood caused widespread _____ to homes and roads.
A. damaged
B. damage
C. damages
D. damaging
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The singular noun 'damage' fits the expression.
Question 318 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: He gave a _____ explanation that removed all doubt.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 39A. convince
B. convincingly
C. convincing
D. conviction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An adjective is required to qualify 'explanation'
.
Question 319 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chairman appealed for calm and _____.
A. restrict
B. restrain
C. restraint
D. restrained
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The noun 'restraint' pairs naturally with 'calm'
.
Question 320 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The athlete's quick recovery surprised the medical _____.
A. teamsman
B. teaming
C. team
D. teamed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The natural noun completing the idea is 'team'
.
Question 321 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The police acted on a _____ received from a passer-by.
A. dropout
B. tip-off
C. call-up
D. drawback
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A 'tip-off' is useful information given secretly.
Question 322 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The teacher's approach made the lesson more _____.
A. interestedly
B. interesting
C. interest
D. interests
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An adjective is needed after 'more'
.
Question 323 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The committee reached its decision after careful _____.
A. deliberately
B. deliberate
C. deliberating
D. deliberation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The noun 'deliberation' fits the context.
Question 324 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The players returned to the pitch with renewed _____.
A. confidently
B. confide
C. confidence
D. confident
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A noun is needed after 'renewed'
.
Question 325 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The company hopes to _____ its market share next year.
A. increaseful
B. increased
C. increasing
D. increase
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The base verb follows 'to'
.
Question 326 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The injured man was taken to the hospital for _____ treatment.
A. urgency
B. urge
C. urgent
D. urgently
Correct Answer: C
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 40Explanation: An adjective is needed before 'treatment'
.
Question 327 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The minister promised a full _____ of the incident.
A. investigation
B. investigative
C. investigating
D. investigate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A noun is needed after 'full'
.
Question 328 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: Good leaders must be fair and _____.
A. firmness
B. firmly
C. affirm
D. firm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An adjective is needed after 'and'
.
Question 329 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The letter was so badly written that its meaning was _____.
A. unclearly
B. clarity
C. unclearness
D. unclear
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The adjective 'unclear' fits the sentence.
Question 330 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: A writer's bias in a passage is shown by
A. the length of the title
B. partial or one-sided presentation
C. the date of publication
D. the number of paragraphs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bias is revealed by unfairly favouring one side.
Question 331 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The best title for a passage is the one that
A. quotes the first sentence
B. captures its main idea accurately
C. ends with a question
D. contains the longest word
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A good title reflects the central message.
Question 332 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: An example used by a writer mainly helps to
A. change the topic
B. replace evidence
C. confuse the reader
D. illustrate an idea
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Examples make an idea clearer.
Question 333 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The phrase 'for instance' in a passage usually introduces
A. a contrast
B. a warning
C. an example
D. a conclusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: It signals an illustration or example.
Question 334 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: The sentence that sums up a paragraph most directly is often the
A. footnote
B. topic sentence
C. appendix
D. caption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The topic sentence presents the paragraph's main idea.
Question 335 Topic: Comprehension and Summary Likelihood: Medium
Question: In summary writing, redundant expressions should be
A. removed
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 41B. expanded
C. repeated
D. quoted at length
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A summary should be concise.
Question 336 Topic: Sentence Completion Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chairman's decision was widely seen as a _____ step toward peace.
A. posit
B. positively
C. positiveness
D. positive
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An adjective is needed before 'step'
.
Question 337 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The principal said the new rule would not be bent for anybody." This means that
A. the rule would be changed later
B. the rule would be strictly enforced
C. the rule was poorly written
D. the rule would favour the rich
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 338 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "Ada has a chip on her shoulder about the issue." This means that
A. Ada is resentful about it
B. Ada is excited about it
C. Ada is joking about it
D. Ada is ignorant of it
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 339 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The striker was off colour during the match." This means that
A. the striker performed poorly
B. the striker was suspended
C. the striker wore the wrong jersey
D. the striker arrived late
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 340 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The manager told the staff to keep their ears to the ground." This means that
A. they should rest after work
B. they should listen to music
C. they should obey quietly
D. they should stay alert for information
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 341 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The chairman warned the members not to wash their dirty linen in public." This means that
A. they should not expose private quarrels openly
B. they should clean the hall
C. they should dress neatly
D. they should avoid gossiping at home
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 342 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "After the examination, many candidates felt at sea." This means that
A. they were joyful
B. they felt sleepy
C. they travelled by boat
D. they felt confused
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 343 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The witness made a mountain out of a molehill." This means that
A. the witness lied completely
B. the witness exaggerated a small matter
C. the witness spoke boldly
D. the witness became emotional
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 42Question 344 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The minister promised to leave no stone unturned." This means that
A. the minister would make every effort
B. the minister would delay action
C. the minister would work alone
D. the minister would punish opponents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 345 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The young artist is head and shoulders above his peers." This means that
A. he is far better than the others
B. he is taller than the others
C. he is proud of himself
D. he is very stubborn
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 346 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The suspect decided to come clean at last." This means that
A. the suspect avoided speaking
B. the suspect took a bath
C. the suspect changed clothes
D. the suspect decided to confess honestly
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 347 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The chairman's speech was full of hot air." This means that
A. it contained empty boastful talk
B. it was delivered outdoors
C. it was too fast
D. it was very long
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 348 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "When the teacher arrived, the noisy class became quiet as a grave." This means that
A. the class became gloomy
B. the class left the room
C. the class became completely silent
D. the class began to pray
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 349 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "By refusing to apologize, the player added insult to injury." This means that
A. he accepted blame
B. he made a bad situation worse
C. he avoided punishment
D. he explained the problem clearly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 350 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The candidate was told to read between the lines of the letter." This means that
A. the candidate should read quickly
B. the candidate should look for the implied meaning
C. the candidate should underline every word
D. the candidate should skip some parts
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 351 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The governor's announcement took the traders off their guard." This means that
A. the traders left the market
B. the traders became angry
C. the traders were caught unprepared
D. the traders organized a protest
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 352 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The new policy has put many parents on edge." This means that
A. many parents are uncertain about the date
B. many parents are ready to travel
C. many parents are happy
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 43D. many parents are anxious
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 353 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "By helping the victims quietly, she proved that actions speak louder than words." This means that
A. what she did mattered more than what she said
B. she was praised publicly
C. her words were misunderstood
D. she should have spoken more
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 354 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The striker's goal came against the run of play." This means that
A. the goal came when his team was not dominating
B. the crowd was silent
C. the goal was disallowed
D. the match was almost over
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 355 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The chairman asked everyone to take the bull by the horns." This means that
A. he wanted them to act carelessly
B. he wanted them to avoid the issue
C. he wanted them to face the problem bravely
D. he wanted them to travel quickly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 356 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Medium
Question: "The accused was given the benefit of the doubt." This means that
A. he was given extra money
B. he was treated as not proven guilty
C. he was sentenced lightly
D. he was praised unfairly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The statement should be interpreted by its implied meaning, not the literal words.
Question 357 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Likelihood: Medium
Question: Questions based on the prescribed reading text in JAMB usually test knowledge of
A. the publisher's warehouse
B. the author's passport details
C. font size and paper quality
D. plot, character, theme, and events
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reading-text questions focus on literary elements and key events.
Question 358 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Likelihood: Medium
Question: A character who opposes the main character in a novel is called the
A. antagonist
B. prologue
C. chorus
D. narrator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The antagonist opposes the protagonist.
Question 359 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: The time and place in which a story occurs is its
A. plot
B. symbol
C. tone
D. setting
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Setting refers to where and when the story takes place.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 360 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: The chain of events in a story is known as the
A. plot
B. mood
C. register
D. stanza
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Plot is the arrangement of events in a narrative.
Likelihood: Medium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 44Question 361 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: A central message or lesson in a literary work is its
A. chapter
B. punctuation
C. dialogue
D. theme
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Theme is the underlying idea or message.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 362 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Likelihood: Medium
Question: The character through whose eyes a story is mainly told may be identified by the
A. point of view
B. table of contents
C. publisher's note
D. syllable count
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Point of view concerns the perspective from which a story is narrated.
Question 363 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: A sudden realization by a character in a story is called
A. an interval
B. an insight
C. a footnote
D. a chorus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An insight is a moment of understanding.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 364 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: When a writer uses one thing to stand for another, the device is
Likelihood: Medium
A. punctuation
B. dialogue
C. symbolism
D. register
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Symbolism gives deeper meaning through representation.
Question 365 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: Conversation between characters in a novel is called
A. narration
B. setting
C. dialogue
D. summary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dialogue refers to spoken exchange among characters.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 366 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Question: The main character in a novel is called the
A. spectator
B. antagonist
C. witness
D. protagonist
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The protagonist is the central character.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 367 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of seat?
A. great
B. bread
C. beat
D. head
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'seat' and 'beat' share the same vowel sound.
Question 368 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of ship?
A. seat
B. sheep
C. shape
D. sit
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'ship' and 'sit' share the same vowel sound.
Question 369 A. pool
B. fool
C. fall
D. pull
Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of full?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 45Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'full' and 'pull' share the same vowel sound.
Question 370 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of cat?
A. cart
B. coat
C. cut
D. hat
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'cat' and 'hat' share the same vowel sound.
Question 371 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of cup?
A. luck
B. cope
C. cap
D. keep
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'cup' and 'luck' share the same vowel sound.
Question 372 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of hot?
A. height
B. hit
C. hut
D. pot
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'hot' and 'pot' share the same vowel sound.
Question 373 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of bird?
A. bed
B. beard
C. board
D. word
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'bird' and 'word' share the same vowel sound.
Question 374 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of late?
A. let
B. gate
C. light
D. lot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'late' and 'gate' share the same vowel sound.
Question 375 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of cool?
A. coat
B. call
C. coal
D. pool
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'cool' and 'pool' share the same vowel sound.
Question 376 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of fear?
A. far
B. near
C. fair
D. fire
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'fear' and 'near' share the same vowel sound.
Question 377 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of day?
A. say
B. die
C. dear
D. dug
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'day' and 'say' share the same vowel sound.
Question 378 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of ten?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 46A. tan
B. tone
C. tin
D. pen
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'ten' and 'pen' share the same vowel sound.
Question 379 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of book?
A. buck
B. bake
C. look
D. back
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'book' and 'look' share the same vowel sound.
Question 380 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of farm?
A. calm
B. form
C. foam
D. firm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'farm' and 'calm' share the same vowel sound.
Question 381 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of boy?
A. toy
B. bay
C. buy
D. bee
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'boy' and 'toy' share the same vowel sound.
Question 382 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of ride?
A. side
B. red
C. road
D. raid
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'ride' and 'side' share the same vowel sound.
Question 383 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of good?
A. god
B. gold
C. guard
D. wood
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'good' and 'wood' share the same vowel sound.
Question 384 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of man?
A. fan
B. mean
C. mine
D. moon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'man' and 'fan' share the same vowel sound.
Question 385 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of cot?
A. lot
B. cat
C. cut
D. coat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'cot' and 'lot' share the same vowel sound.
Question 386 A. meal
B. mail
C. pill
D. pool
Correct Answer: A
Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of peel?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 47Explanation: 'peel' and 'meal' share the same vowel sound.
Question 387 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of call?
A. cell
B. cool
C. coil
D. wall
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'call' and 'wall' share the same vowel sound.
Question 388 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of bed?
A. said
B. bid
C. bade
D. bird
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'bed' and 'said' share the same vowel sound.
Question 389 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of park?
A. poke
B. pack
C. dark
D. perk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'park' and 'dark' share the same vowel sound.
Question 390 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of light?
A. late
B. lot
C. lid
D. might
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'light' and 'might' share the same vowel sound.
Question 391 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of mouse?
A. most
B. mass
C. moss
D. house
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'mouse' and 'house' share the same vowel sound.
Question 392 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of pay?
A. pie
B. pear
C. day
D. pea
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'pay' and 'day' share the same vowel sound.
Question 393 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of born?
A. bone
B. corn
C. barn
D. burn
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'born' and 'corn' share the same vowel sound.
Question 394 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of pin?
A. tin
B. pen
C. pane
D. pain
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'pin' and 'tin' share the same vowel sound.
Question 395 A. pole
Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of pool?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 48B. pull
C. poll
D. school
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'pool' and 'school' share the same vowel sound.
Question 396 Topic: Oral English - Vowel Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of rage?
A. ridge
B. rogue
C. page
D. rag
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'rage' and 'page' share the same vowel sound.
Question 397 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as judge?
Likelihood: Medium
A. giant
B. zebra
C. chair
D. yacht
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Both 'judge' and 'giant' begin with the /d■/ sound.
Question 398 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as phone?
Likelihood: Medium
A. whale
B. vote
C. phase
D. photo
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Phone' and 'phase' begin with the /f/ sound.
Question 399 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as ship?
Likelihood: Medium
A. vision
B. church
C. sugar
D. garage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Ship' and 'sugar' begin with the /■/ sound in this context.
Question 400 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word ends with the same consonant sound as laugh?
Likelihood: Medium
A. bough
B. cough
C. through
D. though
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Laugh' and 'cough' end with the /f/ sound.
Question 401 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word contains a silent letter?
A. belt
B. drum
C. debt
D. bend
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The letter 'b' is silent in 'debt'
.
Likelihood: Low
Question 402 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word contains the /■/ sound?
A. songer
B. sing
C. sign
D. sine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The final sound in 'sing' is /■/.
Likelihood: Low
Question 403 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word has the same initial consonant sound as chemistry in standard usage?
A. chew
B. child
C. chorus
D. chair
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In these words, 'ch' is pronounced /k/.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 49Question 404 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word contains the /θ/ sound?
A. this
B. they
C. then
D. think
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The initial sound in 'think' is voiceless /θ/.
Likelihood: Low
Question 405 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word contains the /ð/ sound?
A. thin
B. thick
C. thank
D. this
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The initial sound in 'this' is voiced /ð/.
Likelihood: Low
Question 406 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word has a final /t■/ sound?
A. watch
B. badge
C. wash
D. wage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Watch' ends with /t■/.
Likelihood: Low
Question 407 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word has the same final consonant sound as measure?
Likelihood: Low
A. badge
B. march
C. garage
D. message
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Both 'measure' and 'garage' can end with the /■/ sound.
Question 408 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word begins with the /w/ sound?
A. one
B. who
C. honour
D. whole
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'One' begins with /w/.
Likelihood: Low
Question 409 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as xylophone?
A. xerox
B. box
C. axe
D. zebra
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Xylophone' starts with the /z/ sound.
Question 410 Topic: Oral English - Consonant Sound Question: Which word ends with a silent consonant letter?
A. camp
B. comb
C. calmly
D. come
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The 'b' in 'comb' is silent.
Likelihood: Low
Question 411 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word photograph?
A. fourth
B. third
C. second
D. first
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'photograph' falls on the first syllable.
Question 412 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word photography?
A. second
B. third
C. first
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 50D. fourth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The primary stress in 'photography' falls on the second syllable.
Question 413 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word photographic?
A. second
B. third
C. first
D. fourth
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The primary stress in 'photographic' falls on the third syllable.
Question 414 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word desert?
A. fourth
B. third
C. second
D. first
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'desert' falls on the first syllable.
Question 415 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word record?
A. second
B. fourth
C. first
D. third
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'record' falls on the first syllable.
Question 416 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word present?
A. third
B. second
C. fourth
D. first
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'present' falls on the first syllable.
Question 417 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word contract?
A. fourth
B. first
C. second
D. third
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The primary stress in 'contract' falls on the first syllable.
Question 418 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word export?
A. third
B. fourth
C. first
D. second
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'export' falls on the first syllable.
Question 419 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word important?
A. third
B. fourth
C. first
D. second
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'important' falls on the second syllable.
Question 420 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word education?
A. second
B. first
C. third
D. fourth
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'education' falls on the third syllable.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 51Question 421 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word opportunity?
A. fourth
B. second
C. first
D. third
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'opportunity' falls on the third syllable.
Question 422 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word development?
A. second
B. first
C. third
D. fourth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The primary stress in 'development' falls on the second syllable.
Question 423 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word information?
A. fourth
B. first
C. third
D. second
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'information' falls on the third syllable.
Question 424 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word communication?
A. second
B. third
C. first
D. fourth
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'communication' falls on the fourth syllable.
Question 425 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word determine?
A. second
B. first
C. third
D. fourth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The primary stress in 'determine' falls on the second syllable.
Question 426 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word economic?
A. second
B. fourth
C. first
D. third
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'economic' falls on the third syllable.
Question 427 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word academic?
A. third
B. second
C. fourth
D. first
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The primary stress in 'academic' falls on the third syllable.
Question 428 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word conversation?
A. fourth
B. second
C. first
D. third
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The primary stress in 'conversation' falls on the third syllable.
Question 429 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word application?
A. fourth
B. first
C. third
D. second
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 52Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'application' falls on the third syllable.
Question 430 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word agriculture?
A. fourth
B. second
C. third
D. first
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'agriculture' falls on the third syllable.
Question 431 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word examination?
A. fourth
B. second
C. third
D. first
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The primary stress in 'examination' falls on the fourth syllable.
Question 432 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word political?
A. fourth
B. third
C. second
D. first
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary stress in 'political' falls on the second syllable.
Question 433 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word geography?
A. third
B. second
C. fourth
D. first
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The primary stress in 'geography' falls on the second syllable.
Question 434 Topic: Oral English - Stress Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word technology?
A. fourth
B. second
C. third
D. first
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The primary stress in 'technology' falls on the second syllable.
Question 435 Topic: Punctuation and Capitalization Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
A. The teacher said, 'Work hard and be honest'
.
B. The teacher said 'Work hard and be honest'
.
C. The teacher said 'Work hard and be honest.'
D. The teacher said, 'Work hard and be honest.'
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Direct speech is correctly introduced with a comma and enclosed in quotation marks with the full stop inside.
Question 436 Topic: Punctuation and Capitalization Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the sentence with correct capitalization.
A. The niger River flows through West Africa.
B. The Niger River flows through West Africa.
C. The Niger River flows through west africa.
D. The Niger river flows through west Africa.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Proper nouns begin with capital letters.
Question 437 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a vulnerable explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'vulnerable' is
A. exposed
B. firm
C. silent
D. protected
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'vulnerable' is closest in meaning to 'exposed'
.
Question 438 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a meticulous explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'meticulous' is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 53A. angry
B. careless
C. rapid
D. thorough
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'meticulous' is closest in meaning to 'thorough'
.
Question 439 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a plausible explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'plausible' is
A. believable
B. weak
C. empty
D. ridiculous
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'plausible' is closest in meaning to 'believable'
.
Question 440 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a resilient explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'resilient' is
A. lazy
B. tough
C. timid
D. fragile
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'resilient' is closest in meaning to 'tough'
.
Question 441 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a tenuous explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'tenuous' is
A. strong
B. clear
C. weak
D. firm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'tenuous' is closest in meaning to 'weak'
.
Question 442 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a abrupt explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'abrupt' is
A. careful
B. sudden
C. gradual
D. gentle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'abrupt' is closest in meaning to 'sudden'
.
Question 443 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a arduous explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'arduous' is
A. difficult
B. pleasant
C. easy
D. mild
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'arduous' is closest in meaning to 'difficult'
.
Question 444 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a concise explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'concise' is
A. long
B. careless
C. vague
D. brief
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'concise' is closest in meaning to 'brief'
.
Question 445 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a deplete explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'deplete' is
A. increase
B. delay
C. reduce
D. admire
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'deplete' is closest in meaning to 'reduce'
.
Question 446 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a explicit explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'explicit' is
A. hidden
B. careless
C. clear
D. brief
Correct Answer: C
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 54Explanation: 'explicit' is closest in meaning to 'clear'
.
Question 447 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a gratify explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'gratify' is
A. please
B. injure
C. sadden
D. delay
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'gratify' is closest in meaning to 'please'
.
Question 448 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a inevitable explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'inevitable' is
A. unavoidable
B. doubtful
C. rare
D. optional
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'inevitable' is closest in meaning to 'unavoidable'
.
Question 449 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a lucid explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'lucid' is
A. dark
B. clear
C. brief
D. harsh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'lucid' is closest in meaning to 'clear'
.
Question 450 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a mundane explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'mundane' is
A. noble
B. rare
C. ordinary
D. strange
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'mundane' is closest in meaning to 'ordinary'
.
Question 451 Topic: Synonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The report offered a notion explanation of the issue,' the word closest in meaning to 'notion' is
A. crowd
B. measure
C. penalty
D. idea
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'notion' is closest in meaning to 'idea'
.
Question 452 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a abstain statement on the matter.
A. refuse
B. delay
C. ignore
D. participate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'abstain' here is 'participate'
.
Question 453 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a adverse statement on the matter.
A. favourable
B. brief
C. harmful
D. sudden
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'adverse' here is 'favourable'
.
Question 454 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a candid statement on the matter.
A. bold
B. evasive
C. frank
D. clear
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The opposite of 'candid' here is 'evasive'
.
Question 455 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a deficit statement on the matter.
A. surplus
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 55B. need
C. waste
D. debt
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'deficit' here is 'surplus'
.
Question 456 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a deteriorate statement on the matter.
A. weaken
B. decline
C. drop
D. improve
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'deteriorate' here is 'improve'
.
Question 457 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a external statement on the matter.
A. broad
B. visible
C. internal
D. hidden
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The opposite of 'external' here is 'internal'
.
Question 458 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a fragile statement on the matter.
A. durable
B. small
C. weak
D. careless
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'fragile' here is 'durable'
.
Question 459 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a hostility statement on the matter.
A. bitterness
B. friendliness
C. anger
D. fear
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The opposite of 'hostility' here is 'friendliness'
.
Question 460 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a legible statement on the matter.
A. illegible
B. clear
C. visible
D. formal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'legible' here is 'illegible'
.
Question 461 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a optimism statement on the matter.
A. despair
B. hope
C. patience
D. strength
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'optimism' here is 'despair'
.
Question 462 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a ruthless statement on the matter.
A. silent
B. strict
C. fearful
D. compassionate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'ruthless' here is 'compassionate'
.
Question 463 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a vacant statement on the matter.
A. wide
B. cheap
C. empty
D. occupied
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'vacant' here is 'occupied'
.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 56Question 464 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a vanish statement on the matter.
A. fall
B. appear
C. hide
D. move
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The opposite of 'vanish' here is 'appear'
.
Question 465 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a virtue statement on the matter.
A. respect
B. honesty
C. honour
D. vice
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'virtue' here is 'vice'
.
Question 466 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The chairman made a yield statement on the matter.
A. resist
B. submit
C. produce
D. answer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The opposite of 'yield' here is 'resist'
.
Question 467 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to put his house in order before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. organize his affairs properly
B. repair his roof
C. move to a new place
D. decorate his home
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The expression means 'organize his affairs properly'
.
Question 468 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to keep his head above water before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. speak loudly
B. avoid failure despite difficulty
C. swim fast
D. remain proud
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The expression means 'avoid failure despite difficulty'
.
Question 469 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to walk on eggshells before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. act very carefully
B. move slowly
C. travel secretly
D. behave proudly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The expression means 'act very carefully'
.
Question 470 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to hit the ground running before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. fall suddenly
B. start very energetically
C. begin carelessly
D. stop working
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The expression means 'start very energetically'
.
Question 471 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to go back to the drawing board before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. draw a map
B. return to school
C. repeat a speech
D. start planning again from the beginning
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The expression means 'start planning again from the beginning'
.
Question 472 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to throw his weight around before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. exercise often
B. use his influence in an unfair way
C. work slowly
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 57D. travel heavily
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The expression means 'use his influence in an unfair way'
.
Question 473 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to know the ropes before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. win a contest
B. tie knots well
C. train new workers
D. understand how a system works
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The expression means 'understand how a system works'
.
Question 474 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to move heaven and earth before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. pray daily
B. travel widely
C. cause confusion
D. do everything possible
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The expression means 'do everything possible'
.
Question 475 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to a drop in the ocean before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. a very small amount
B. an unexpected gift
C. a useful effort
D. a heavy rainfall
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The expression means 'a very small amount'
.
Question 476 Topic: Idiomatic Expression Likelihood: Low
Question: In the sentence, 'The new manager promised to miss the boat before the next audit,' the expression means to
A. change direction
B. lose an opportunity
C. travel late
D. sail at night
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The expression means 'lose an opportunity'
.
Question 477 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of insurance?
A. premium
B. whistle
C. bacteria
D. metaphor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A premium is a common insurance term.
Question 478 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of navigation?
A. compass
B. chorus
C. cabinet
D. enzyme
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A compass is used in navigation.
Question 479 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of tailoring?
A. ledger
B. ballot
C. electrode
D. seam
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A seam is a tailoring term.
Question 480 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of computing?
A. software
B. plaintiff
C. chlorophyll
D. chorus
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Software belongs to computing.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 58Question 481 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of theatre?
A. syllable
B. invoice
C. rehearsal
D. beaker
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rehearsal is a theatre term.
Question 482 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of transport?
A. stanza
B. hypha
C. litigation
D. timetable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Timetable is commonly used in transport.
Question 483 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of religion?
A. sermon
B. electrolyte
C. discount
D. offside
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sermon belongs to religious register.
Question 484 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of printing?
A. franchise
B. dribble
C. pollinate
D. proofread
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Proofread is a printing/editing term.
Question 485 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of economics?
A. rhizome
B. incision
C. inflation
D. alliteration
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Inflation is an economics term.
Question 486 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of music?
A. mortar
B. friction
C. tempo
D. ledger
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tempo belongs to music.
Question 487 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of coat?
A. cot
B. goat
C. court
D. cut
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Coat' and 'goat' share the /o■/ sound.
Question 488 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word contains the same vowel sound as the underlined part of pen?
A. moon
B. men
C. mean
D. mine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Pen' and 'men' share the /e/ sound.
Question 489 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word committee?
A. first
B. third
C. fourth
D. second
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 59Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The stress in 'committee' falls on the second syllable.
Question 490 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word engineer?
A. second
B. third
C. fourth
D. first
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The stress in 'engineer' falls on the third syllable.
Question 491 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which syllable is stressed in the word politics?
A. first
B. second
C. fourth
D. third
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The stress in 'politics' falls on the first syllable.
Question 492 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as genre?
A. goat
B. giant
C. game
D. garage
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In these examples, 'genre' and 'garage' can realize the /■/ sound.
Question 493 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as yacht?
A. yes
B. chef
C. gem
D. who
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Both begin with the /j/ sound.
Question 494 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word contains the /■/ sound?
A. notionless
B. nation
C. native
D. nature
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Nation' contains the /■/ sound in its second syllable.
Question 495 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word contains the /t■/ sound?
A. measure
B. nature
C. garage
D. nation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Nature' contains the /t■/ sound in its second syllable.
Question 496 Topic: Oral English Likelihood: Low
Question: Which word begins with the same consonant sound as queen?
A. quick
B. church
C. chemical
D. genre
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Both begin with the /kw/ cluster.
Question 497 Topic: Sentence Interpretation Likelihood: Low
Question: "The board has drawn a line in the sand on exam malpractice." This means that
A. the board wants to delay the exam
B. the board is uncertain
C. the board has changed the venue
D. the board has set a firm limit that should not be crossed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The expression means a clear boundary or final position has been set.
Question 498 Topic: Registers Likelihood: Low
Question: Which of the following belongs to the register of aviation?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 60A. capsule
B. ledger
C. runway
D. syllable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Runway' belongs to aviation.
Question 499 Topic: Reading Text and Literary Terms Likelihood: Low
Question: The character who tells the story using 'I' is speaking from the
A. third-person point of view
B. objective summary
C. dramatic point of view
D. first-person point of view
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Use of 'I' signals first-person narration.
Question 500 Topic: Antonyms in Context Likelihood: Low
Question: Choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlined word: The referee took an impartial decision.
A. just
B. neutral
C. fair
D. biased
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The opposite of 'impartial' is 'biased'
.
Biology
500 original multiple-choice questions with answers, explanations, topic labels, and likelihood ratings.
Section 1: Most repeated topics
- Cell structure and organization
- Nutrition in plants and animals
- Transport and respiration
- Ecology and ecosystems
- Reproduction and growth
- Genetics, heredity, and variation
- Coordination and control
- Classification of organisms
Section 2: This year's likely focus areas
High priority: Cell biology, Nutrition, Ecology, Genetics, Transport in plants and mammals
Medium priority: Reproduction, Respiration, Excretion, Coordination and control
Low priority: Applied biology edge topics, Less frequent taxonomy details
Section 3: 500 original questions
Questions are ordered broadly from higher-yield areas to lower-frequency areas within the subject.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 61Question 1 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The organelle that controls the activities of the cell is the
A. mitochondrion
B. nucleus
C. ribosome
D. vacuole
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The nucleus contains genetic material and controls cell activities.
Question 2 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The site of aerobic respiration in the cell is the
A. mitochondrion
B. lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. centrosome
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Most aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondrion.
Question 3 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Ribosomes are mainly concerned with
A. lipid digestion
B. storage of water
C. cell division
D. protein synthesis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.
Question 4 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The cell membrane is described as selectively permeable because it
A. allows some substances to pass more easily than others
B. prevents water from passing
C. has a rigid cellulose layer
D. allows every substance to pass freely
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Selective permeability means some substances pass through more readily than others.
Question 5 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The plant cell organelle that contains chlorophyll is the
A. lysosome
B. chloroplast
C. nucleus
D. centriole
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
Question 6 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The large central vacuole of a plant cell mainly helps to
A. carry out respiration
B. maintain turgidity
C. control heredity
D. produce enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cell sap in the vacuole helps maintain turgor pressure.
Question 7 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The cellulose layer surrounding a plant cell is the
A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. capsid
D. nuclear envelope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The cell wall gives support and protection.
Question 8 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: In unicellular organisms, diffusion is adequate for transport because
A. their bodies are always green
B. the surface area to volume ratio is high
C. they possess no protoplasm
D. their nuclei are absent
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Small size gives a high surface-area-to-volume ratio.
Question 9 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which materials move from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration is
A. osmosis
B. diffusion
C. translocation
D. active transport
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 62Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Diffusion is passive movement down a concentration gradient.
Question 10 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Osmosis occurs through a
A. rigid wall only
B. thick cuticle
C. partially permeable membrane
D. woody stem
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Osmosis specifically requires a partially permeable membrane.
Question 11 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Active transport differs from diffusion because it
A. always moves gases
B. takes place without a membrane
C. occurs only in plants
D. requires energy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Active transport uses energy to move materials against a gradient.
Question 12 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: If a red blood cell is placed in distilled water, it will
A. become rigid
B. shrink
C. swell and burst
D. remain unchanged
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Water enters the cell by osmosis in a hypotonic solution.
Question 13 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: A plant cell placed in concentrated salt solution becomes
A. dividing rapidly
B. flaccid but unchanged
C. turgid
D. plasmolysed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Water leaves the cell and the protoplast pulls away from the cell wall.
Question 14 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which a cell divides to form two identical daughter cells is
A. meiosis
B. fertilization
C. mitosis
D. budding
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mitosis produces identical cells for growth and repair.
Question 15 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Meiosis is important because it
A. reduces chromosome number in gametes
B. produces body tissues
C. increases chlorophyll
D. causes plasmolysis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Meiosis halves the chromosome number for sexual reproduction.
Question 16 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The genetic material found in the nucleus is
A. RNA only
B. glycogen
C. DNA
D. ATP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: DNA stores hereditary information.
Question 17 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Tissues are groups of
A. similar cells performing related functions
B. molecules with the same shape
C. organs working together
D. gametes undergoing fusion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A tissue consists of similar cells with a common function.
Question 18 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: An organ is best described as
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 63A. one specialized cell
B. many organs forming a system
C. a group of tissues working together
D. a membrane-covered cavity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Organs are made of tissues performing a particular function.
Question 19 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The basic unit of life is the
A. cell
B. atom
C. gene
D. organ
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.
Question 20 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The jelly-like substance in which cell organelles are suspended is the
A. chromosome
B. nucleolus
C. cytoplasm
D. cell wall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The cytoplasm contains organelles and is the site of many reactions.
Question 21 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which white blood cells engulf pathogens is
A. plasmolysis
B. pinocytosis
C. dialysis
D. phagocytosis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Phagocytosis involves the engulfment of solid particles.
Question 22 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: An organism that consists of only one cell is described as
A. unicellular
B. multicellular
C. colonial only
D. saprophytic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Unicellular organisms have a single cell.
Question 23 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The thread-like structures that become visible during cell division are
A. vacuoles
B. chromosomes
C. spores
D. vesicles
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chromosomes carry genes and become clearly visible during division.
Question 24 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The organelle responsible for packaging materials for secretion is the
A. centriole
B. chromatin
C. ribosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages secretions.
Question 25 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: Lysosomes are rich in
A. digestive enzymes
B. chlorophyll
C. bile salts
D. hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lysosomes contain enzymes for intracellular digestion.
Question 26 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The movement of water from the soil into root hairs occurs mainly by
A. diffusion only
B. osmosis
C. active transport
D. transpiration
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 64Explanation: Water moves into root hair cells by osmosis.
Question 27 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: A turgid plant cell contains
A. a collapsed cell membrane
B. no cell wall
C. a vacuole swollen with cell sap
D. fewer chromosomes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Turgidity is due to water-filled vacuole pressing against the wall.
Question 28 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The spindle fibres formed during cell division are important for
A. separating chromosomes
B. forming chlorophyll
C. producing antibodies
D. digesting food
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Spindle fibres move chromosomes to opposite poles.
Question 29 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: The nucleolus is involved in the formation of
A. chloroplasts
B. cell walls
C. vacuoles
D. ribosomes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The nucleolus helps in ribosome formation.
Question 30 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: High
Question: A membrane-bound sac used for storage in cells is the
A. chromosome
B. vacuole
C. ribosome
D. centriole
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vacuoles store materials such as cell sap.
Question 31 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The unit used in the classification of closely related organisms is the
A. phylum
B. order
C. species
D. kingdom
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Species is the basic unit of classification.
Question 32 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The science of grouping organisms is known as
A. taxonomy
B. embryology
C. physiology
D. cytology
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Taxonomy deals with classification.
Question 33 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A major feature that distinguishes vertebrates from invertebrates is the presence of
A. joints
B. blood
C. a backbone
D. wings
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vertebrates possess a vertebral column.
Question 34 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Mammals are distinguished from other vertebrates mainly by the presence of
A. scales
B. gills
C. claws
D. mammary glands
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mammary glands are characteristic of mammals.
Question 35 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Birds are well adapted for flight because they possess
A. light hollow bones
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 65B. external gills
C. soft skin
D. a double shell
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hollow bones reduce body weight.
Question 36 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The body covering of reptiles is mainly
A. dry scales
B. feathers
C. moist skin
D. fur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Reptiles have dry, keratinized scales.
Question 37 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Fish obtain oxygen from water mainly with the aid of
A. skin pores
B. gills
C. spiracles
D. lungs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gills exchange gases in water.
Question 38 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Annelids are characterized by
A. segmented bodies
B. jointed appendages
C. flowers
D. wings
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Annelids such as earthworms are segmented.
Question 39 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Insects belong to the phylum
A. Arthropoda
B. Mollusca
C. Annelida
D. Chordata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Insects are arthropods.
Question 40 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The body of an insect is divided into
A. head, thorax and abdomen
B. head and trunk
C. head, neck and tail
D. cephalothorax and abdomen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Insects have three body regions.
Question 41 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Arachnids differ from insects because arachnids possess
A. wings
B. four pairs of legs
C. one pair of antennae
D. three body segments
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Arachnids have eight legs.
Question 42 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A fungus differs from a green plant because it
A. reproduces
B. lacks chlorophyll
C. has cell walls
D. stores food
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fungi do not photosynthesize because they lack chlorophyll.
Question 43 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The thread-like structures that make up the body of most fungi are
A. hyphae
B. stomata
C. xylem vessels
D. cilia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hyphae collectively form the mycelium.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 66Question 44 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A protozoan is typically
A. a vertebrate
B. multicellular and green
C. a flowering plant
D. unicellular
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Protozoa are one-celled organisms.
Question 45 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Bacteria are placed in a different kingdom mainly because they
A. reproduce rapidly
B. lack a true nucleus
C. are microscopic
D. live in water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bacteria are prokaryotic.
Question 46 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Euglena is often described as both plant-like and animal-like because it
A. produces milk
B. has feathers and fur
C. lives both on land and in water
D. has chloroplasts yet can move with a flagellum
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Euglena is photosynthetic and motile.
Question 47 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The mode of nutrition in mushrooms is
A. saprophytic
B. parasitic only
C. autotrophic
D. holozoic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mushrooms feed on dead organic matter.
Question 48 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The green alga Spirogyra reproduces asexually by
A. sporulation only
B. fragmentation
C. binary fission
D. budding
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spirogyra can break into fragments that grow independently.
Question 49 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A virus can be described as
A. a free-living plant
B. a protozoan predator
C. a multicellular fungus
D. an obligate intracellular parasite
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Viruses reproduce only inside living cells.
Question 50 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The kingdom to which Amoeba belongs is
A. Plantae
B. Animalia
C. Protista
D. Fungi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Amoeba is a unicellular protist.
Question 51 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The exoskeleton of arthropods is made mainly of
A. lignin
B. chitin
C. cellulose
D. calcium phosphate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Arthropod exoskeletons contain chitin.
Question 52 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The locomotory organ used by Amoeba is the
A. flagellum
B. pseudopodium
C. cilium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 67D. tentacle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amoeba moves with pseudopodia.
Question 53 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Paramecium moves with the aid of
A. cilia
B. setae
C. pseudopodia
D. wings
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Paramecium is covered with cilia for movement.
Question 54 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The larval stage of a frog that lives in water is the
A. nymph
B. pupa
C. maggot
D. tadpole
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The tadpole is the aquatic larva of frogs.
Question 55 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A characteristic feature of flowering plants is the production of
A. seeds enclosed in fruits
B. jointed limbs
C. gills
D. spores only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Angiosperms produce seeds enclosed in fruits.
Question 56 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The kingdom Animalia is made up of organisms that are generally
A. multicellular and heterotrophic
B. unicellular and autotrophic
C. prokaryotic and parasitic
D. photosynthetic and rooted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Animals are multicellular consumers.
Question 57 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Flatworms are generally characterized by
A. woody stems
B. feathers
C. dorso-ventrally flattened bodies
D. segmented wings
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Platyhelminthes are flattened worms.
Question 58 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: Molluscs are commonly recognized by their
A. soft unsegmented bodies
B. jointed appendages
C. radial symmetry only
D. backbones
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Molluscs such as snails have soft bodies.
Question 59 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: The phylum to which earthworm belongs is
A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Chordata
D. Arthropoda
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Earthworms are annelids.
Question 60 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: High
Question: A feature common to all living organisms is the ability to
A. fly
B. use lungs
C. carry out metabolism
D. make chlorophyll
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: All living things carry out metabolic activities.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 68Question 61 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The gas required for photosynthesis is
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plants use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.
Question 62 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The raw materials for photosynthesis are
A. oxygen and glucose
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. glucose and minerals
D. water and oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and water.
Question 63 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The green pigment that traps light energy is
A. chlorophyll
B. melanin
C. hemoglobin
D. insulin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs light for photosynthesis.
Question 64 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which green plants manufacture food is
A. photosynthesis
B. respiration
C. fermentation
D. transpiration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Photosynthesis produces organic food from simple substances.
Question 65 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Glucose produced during photosynthesis is often stored in plants as
A. fat
B. glycogen
C. starch
D. protein
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plants commonly store excess glucose as starch.
Question 66 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The test for starch in a leaf uses
A. biuret reagent
B. iodine solution
C. Benedict's solution
D. limewater
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Iodine turns blue-black in the presence of starch.
Question 67 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: A leaf is adapted for photosynthesis because it has
A. woody texture
B. thick bark
C. a broad lamina
D. deep roots only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A broad lamina exposes a large surface area to light.
Question 68 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Water loss from leaves mainly occurs through the
A. xylem vessels
B. petiole
C. cuticle only
D. stomata
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Stomata are the main pores for gaseous exchange and water loss.
Question 69 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by
A. guard cells
B. palisade cells
C. phloem cells
D. epidermal cells
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 69Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Guard cells regulate the stomatal aperture.
Question 70 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: A factor that can reduce the rate of photosynthesis is
A. broad leaves
B. adequate water
C. low light intensity
D. high chlorophyll content
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Insufficient light limits photosynthesis.
Question 71 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The upward movement of water in a plant is aided by
A. fermentation
B. conjugation
C. transpiration pull
D. plasmolysis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Evaporation from leaves helps draw water upward.
Question 72 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The food-making tissue in the leaf is mainly the
A. phloem
B. xylem
C. palisade mesophyll
D. epidermis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Palisade cells contain many chloroplasts.
Question 73 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Carnivorous plants trap insects mainly to obtain
A. sugar
B. nitrogen compounds
C. carbon dioxide
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: These plants often live in nitrogen-poor soils.
Question 74 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The mode of nutrition in a green plant is
A. holozoic
B. saprophytic
C. parasitic
D. autotrophic
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Green plants manufacture their own food.
Question 75 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The structure in maize grain that stores food is the
A. endosperm
B. cotyledon
C. style
D. stigma
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The endosperm stores reserve food in maize.
Question 76 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The product of protein digestion is
A. glucose
B. glycerol
C. fatty acids
D. amino acids
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Proteins are broken down into amino acids.
Question 77 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The end products of fat digestion are
A. amino acids and glycerol
B. starch and sugar
C. glucose and water
D. fatty acids and glycerol
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Lipase breaks fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
Question 78 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Digestion of starch begins in the
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 70A. mouth
B. stomach
C. large intestine
D. rectum
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Salivary amylase begins starch digestion in the mouth.
Question 79 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The enzyme in saliva that acts on starch is
A. pepsin
B. amylase
C. lipase
D. rennin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Salivary amylase converts starch to maltose.
Question 80 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Pepsin works best in the
A. stomach
B. large intestine
C. mouth
D. ileum
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pepsin acts in the acidic environment of the stomach.
Question 81 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Bile is produced by the
A. pancreas
B. gall bladder
C. duodenum
D. liver
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The liver produces bile, which is stored in the gall bladder.
Question 82 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Bile helps in digestion by
A. digesting proteins
B. breaking starch to sugar
C. neutralizing glucose
D. emulsifying fats
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bile breaks fat into tiny droplets.
Question 83 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Most absorption of digested food occurs in the
A. stomach
B. colon
C. ileum
D. mouth
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ileum has villi for absorption.
Question 84 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Finger-like projections in the small intestine are called
A. cilia
B. alveoli
C. villi
D. nephrons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Villi increase the absorptive surface area.
Question 85 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The vitamin required for normal blood clotting is
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin D
D. vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vitamin K is essential in clotting.
Question 86 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: A deficiency of vitamin C leads to
A. kwashiorkor
B. beriberi
C. rickets
D. scurvy
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 71Explanation: Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.
Question 87 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: A deficiency of vitamin D in children causes
A. rickets
B. night blindness
C. scurvy
D. pellagra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency affects bone formation.
Question 88 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: Lack of protein in a child's diet may result in
A. kwashiorkor
B. anemia
C. goitre
D. rickets
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kwashiorkor is associated with severe protein deficiency.
Question 89 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The mineral element needed for the formation of hemoglobin is
A. sodium
B. iodine
C. iron
D. potassium
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Iron is part of hemoglobin.
Question 90 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: High
Question: The disease goitre is commonly caused by lack of
A. protein
B. calcium
C. iodine
D. vitamin C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Iodine deficiency enlarges the thyroid gland.
Question 91 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Water is transported from roots to leaves mainly through the
A. phloem
B. xylem
C. epidermis
D. cortex
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Xylem conducts water and mineral salts.
Question 92 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Manufactured food is transported in plants by the
A. cuticle
B. xylem
C. cambium
D. phloem
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Phloem carries dissolved food.
Question 93 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The loss of water vapour from aerial parts of plants is
A. respiration
B. transpiration
C. excretion
D. guttation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Transpiration is water loss as vapour.
Question 94 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The force that helps root pressure move water upward is
A. cohesion of water molecules
B. fertilization
C. germination
D. digestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cohesion helps maintain a continuous water column.
Question 95 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Blood consists of plasma and
A. formed elements
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 72B. villi
C. alveoli
D. hormones
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formed elements are red cells, white cells and platelets.
Question 96 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The pigment in red blood cells that carries oxygen is
A. melanin
B. bile
C. chlorophyll
D. hemoglobin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hemoglobin combines with oxygen.
Question 97 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is the
A. vena cava
B. aorta
C. pulmonary vein
D. pulmonary artery
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium.
Question 98 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The largest artery in the human body is the
A. vena cava
B. hepatic portal vein
C. aorta
D. pulmonary vein
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle.
Question 99 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The blood vessel that carries blood from the intestines to the liver is the
A. aorta
B. hepatic portal vein
C. renal vein
D. pulmonary artery
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The hepatic portal vein transports absorbed food to the liver.
Question 100 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Platelets are mainly involved in
A. blood clotting
B. defense against pathogens
C. oxygen transport
D. hormone production
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Platelets help prevent blood loss.
Question 101 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: White blood cells protect the body mainly by
A. transporting oxygen
B. destroying pathogens
C. carrying hormones
D. forming urine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: White blood cells are involved in defense.
Question 102 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the body is the
A. left ventricle
B. right atrium
C. left atrium
D. right ventricle
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta.
Question 103 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Valves in veins help to
A. pump blood
B. digest fats
C. prevent backflow of blood
D. increase oxygen content
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Valves ensure one-way movement of blood.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 73Question 104 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which oxygen combines with food to release energy is
A. transpiration
B. respiration
C. photosynthesis
D. translocation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Respiration releases energy from food.
Question 105 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The energy currency of the cell is
A. ATP
B. DNA
C. NADP
D. RNA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: ATP stores readily usable energy.
Question 106 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces
A. glucose and oxygen
B. lactic acid only
C. oxygen and water
D. alcohol and carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fermentation in yeast yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Question 107 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Anaerobic respiration in human muscles may lead to accumulation of
A. urea
B. lactic acid
C. glycogen
D. carbon monoxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lactic acid builds up during oxygen shortage.
Question 108 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Breathing in humans is aided by the contraction of the
A. kidney
B. pancreas
C. diaphragm
D. liver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inhalation.
Question 109 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The site of gaseous exchange in the lungs is the
A. alveolus
B. trachea
C. larynx
D. bronchus
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Alveoli provide a large surface for exchange.
Question 110 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: A characteristic that makes alveoli efficient is that they
A. have thin moist walls
B. contain chlorophyll
C. are made of bone
D. possess valves
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Thin moist walls allow rapid diffusion of gases.
Question 111 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The opening on a leaf through which gases enter and leave is the
A. vein
B. petiole
C. stoma
D. lenticel
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stomata control gas exchange in leaves.
Question 112 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Lenticels mainly aid gaseous exchange in
A. woody stems
B. flowers
C. roots only
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 74D. seeds
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lenticels are openings in woody stems.
Question 113 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The movement of dissolved food from leaves to storage organs is known as
A. transpiration
B. osmosis
C. diffusion
D. translocation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Translocation occurs through the phloem.
Question 114 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The tissue fluid that bathes body cells is derived from
A. urine
B. bile
C. lymph nodes
D. blood plasma
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Plasma filters out of capillaries to form tissue fluid.
Question 115 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The lymphatic system helps in
A. forming bile
B. digesting proteins
C. returning excess tissue fluid to the blood
D. pumping oxygen directly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lymph returns excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream.
Question 116 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The organ chiefly responsible for pumping blood round the body is the
A. lungs
B. liver
C. heart
D. brain
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The heart is a muscular pump.
Question 117 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: Coronary arteries supply blood to the
A. lungs
B. kidneys
C. heart muscle
D. small intestine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Coronary arteries nourish the myocardium.
Question 118 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The process of taking in oxygen-rich air is called
A. respiration
B. ventilation only
C. exhalation
D. inhalation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Inhalation is breathing in.
Question 119 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The cartilaginous rings in the trachea help to
A. digest food
B. prevent collapse
C. absorb oxygen
D. filter blood
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cartilage keeps the airway open.
Question 120 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: High
Question: The respiratory pigment in insects is generally
A. absent
B. hemoglobin
C. chlorophyll
D. myosin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Insects transport air directly through tracheae and usually lack respiratory pigment.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 75Question 121 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the
A. filament to stigma
B. stigma to ovary
C. anther to the stigma
D. ovary to style
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pollination moves pollen from anther to stigma.
Question 122 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Fusion of male and female gametes is called
A. germination
B. fertilization
C. budding
D. pollination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fertilization forms a zygote.
Question 123 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The part of a flower that develops into a fruit after fertilization is the
A. ovary
B. sepal
C. anther
D. petal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The ovary matures into the fruit.
Question 124 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The ovule develops into a
A. petal
B. stigma
C. sepal
D. seed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovule becomes a seed.
Question 125 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: A flower pollinated by insects usually has
A. brightly coloured petals
B. feathery stigmas
C. abundant light pollen
D. long exposed anthers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Insect-pollinated flowers attract insects with bright petals.
Question 126 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Wind-pollinated flowers usually produce
A. nectar in abundance
B. sticky heavy pollen
C. large scented petals
D. light dry pollen grains
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wind dispersal requires light pollen.
Question 127 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The male reproductive organ of a flower is the
A. stamen
B. pistil
C. ovary
D. sepal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The stamen consists of anther and filament.
Question 128 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The female reproductive organ of a flower is the
A. petiole
B. stamen
C. carpel
D. sepal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The carpel comprises stigma, style and ovary.
Question 129 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Asexual reproduction in Hydra occurs by
A. conjugation
B. binary fission
C. budding
D. pollination
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 76Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A new outgrowth develops on the parent.
Question 130 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Binary fission is common in
A. Fern
B. Toad
C. Amoeba
D. Moss
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Amoeba reproduces asexually by binary fission.
Question 131 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The fusion of two nuclei after conjugation in Spirogyra leads to the formation of a
A. ovule
B. zygospore
C. seedling
D. gamete
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Conjugation produces a zygospore.
Question 132 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: External fertilization is common in
A. bird
B. toad
C. lizard
D. human
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Toads release gametes into water.
Question 133 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The organ where the human fetus develops is the
A. vagina
B. ovary
C. uterus
D. cervix
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The uterus houses the developing fetus.
Question 134 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The structure through which the fetus obtains nutrients from the mother is the
A. appendix
B. placenta
C. kidney
D. pancreas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The placenta mediates exchange between mother and fetus.
Question 135 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The male gamete in flowering plants is found in the
A. sepal
B. pollen grain
C. ovary
D. style
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The pollen grain carries the male nuclei.
Question 136 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The male sex hormone in humans is
A. thyroxine
B. estrogen
C. testosterone
D. insulin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testosterone controls male secondary sexual characteristics.
Question 137 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The female sex hormone mainly responsible for development of female secondary sexual characteristics is
A. adrenaline
B. estrogen
C. testosterone
D. auxin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Estrogen supports female reproductive development.
Question 138 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Ovulation is the release of an ovum from the
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 77A. uterus
B. vagina
C. oviduct
D. ovary
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An ovum is released from the ovary.
Question 139 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The menstrual cycle in humans is controlled by
A. enzymes
B. antibodies
C. hormones
D. red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hormones coordinate the menstrual cycle.
Question 140 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The embryo in a seed obtains food from the
A. sepal only
B. anther
C. cotyledon or endosperm
D. stigma
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stored food nourishes the embryo.
Question 141 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Germination begins when a seed absorbs
A. oxygen only
B. water
C. carbon dioxide only
D. sunlight only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Water activates metabolic processes in the seed.
Question 142 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: A condition necessary for germination is
A. high salinity
B. lack of water
C. oxygen
D. absence of enzymes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Seeds need oxygen for respiration.
Question 143 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: One importance of mitosis is
A. production of variation only
B. reduction of chromosome number
C. growth and repair of tissues
D. formation of pollen tubes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mitosis increases cell number for growth.
Question 144 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: A growth curve that rises rapidly and then levels off is called
A. sigmoid growth curve
B. seasonal curve
C. linear growth curve
D. random curve
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Many organisms display S-shaped growth.
Question 145 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Metamorphosis in insects involves
A. changes in form during development
B. immediate adulthood
C. only increase in body mass
D. loss of reproductive organs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Metamorphosis changes body form from larva to adult.
Question 146 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The stage between larva and adult in a butterfly is the
A. pupa
B. nymph
C. zygote
D. imago
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 78Explanation: The butterfly develops through egg, larva, pupa and adult.
Question 147 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: Asexual reproduction usually results in offspring that are
A. produced only in plants
B. always larger than the parent
C. genetically identical to the parent
D. highly varied
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Without fusion of gametes, offspring are usually clones.
Question 148 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: One advantage of sexual reproduction is that it
A. eliminates competition
B. is always faster
C. produces variation among offspring
D. requires only one parent
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sexual reproduction mixes genes and creates variation.
Question 149 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The nymph stage is found in insects with
A. internal fertilization only
B. incomplete metamorphosis
C. complete metamorphosis
D. direct development only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Grasshoppers develop through egg, nymph and adult.
Question 150 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: High
Question: The zygote is formed immediately after
A. ovulation
B. fertilization
C. germination
D. pollination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The zygote is the first cell formed by fusion of gametes.
Question 151 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A group of organisms of the same species living in a habitat is a
A. community
B. biome
C. ecosystem
D. population
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A population is made up of members of one species.
Question 152 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Different populations living together in an area form a
A. genus
B. biosphere
C. community
D. species
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A community is made up of different populations.
Question 153 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The term ecosystem includes the community and its
A. physical environment
B. predators only
C. green plants only
D. parasites only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: An ecosystem includes living and non-living components.
Question 154 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Green plants are referred to as
A. consumers
B. scavengers
C. decomposers
D. producers
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: They produce food by photosynthesis.
Question 155 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Animals that feed directly on green plants are
A. secondary consumers
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 79B. producers
C. primary consumers
D. decomposers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Herbivores are primary consumers.
Question 156 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Organisms that break down dead organic matter are
A. producers
B. predators
C. decomposers
D. parasites
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Decomposers recycle nutrients.
Question 157 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The role of decomposers in an ecosystem is to
A. increase sunlight
B. return nutrients to the environment
C. carry out pollination
D. reduce rainfall
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: They break down dead matter and release nutrients.
Question 158 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A food chain shows
A. the classification of organisms
B. the transfer of energy from one organism to another
C. the age of a population
D. the movement of water only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Food chains trace feeding relationships.
Question 159 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: In a pyramid of numbers, the first trophic level is occupied by
A. tertiary consumers
B. producers
C. decomposers
D. secondary consumers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Producers form the base of the pyramid.
Question 160 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The ultimate source of energy in most ecosystems is the
A. moon
B. soil
C. sun
D. wind
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Most food chains depend on solar energy.
Question 161 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which green plants lose water vapour is
A. evaporation from soil
B. transpiration
C. condensation
D. respiration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Transpiration occurs mainly through stomata.
Question 162 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which nitrogen in the atmosphere is converted into useful compounds is
A. nitrogen fixation
B. denitrification
C. putrefaction
D. humification
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nitrogen fixation makes nitrogen available to organisms.
Question 163 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Bacteria that convert ammonium compounds to nitrates are involved in
A. putrefaction
B. nitrification
C. denitrification
D. transpiration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nitrifying bacteria produce nitrates.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 80Question 164 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Denitrifying bacteria reduce soil fertility because they
A. increase rainfall
B. produce humus
C. fix atmospheric nitrogen
D. convert nitrates to free nitrogen
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Denitrification removes useful nitrates from the soil.
Question 165 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The major source of carbon dioxide used in the carbon cycle is
A. soil water
B. nitrate salts
C. bone marrow
D. atmospheric carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Plants absorb carbon dioxide from the air.
Question 166 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The process that releases carbon dioxide during the carbon cycle is
A. germination only
B. pollination
C. respiration
D. transpiration
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Respiration returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
Question 167 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A habitat is the
A. number of organisms in an area
B. place where an organism lives
C. role of an organism
D. food of an organism
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Habitat refers to the natural home of an organism.
Question 168 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The role of an organism in its habitat is its
A. niche
B. biome
C. kingdom
D. population
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Niche refers to function or position in the ecosystem.
Question 169 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Organisms living together for mutual benefit show
A. symbiosis
B. predation
C. commensalism only
D. competition
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Symbiosis involves close association with mutual benefit in this context.
Question 170 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed is
A. parasitism
B. mutualism
C. commensalism
D. predation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Commensalism benefits one organism only.
Question 171 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A tapeworm living in the intestine of man illustrates
A. saprophytism
B. mutualism
C. commensalism
D. parasitism
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The tapeworm benefits while the host is harmed.
Question 172 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: When two organisms compete for the same limited resources, the interaction is
A. saprophytism
B. competition
C. commensalism
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 81D. symbiosis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Competition arises from limited resources.
Question 173 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which organisms better adapted survive and reproduce is
A. translocation
B. mutation only
C. artificial respiration
D. natural selection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Natural selection favors advantageous traits.
Question 174 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Variation among individuals of the same species is important because it
A. prevents reproduction
B. provides material for natural selection
C. eliminates competition
D. makes all offspring identical
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Variation helps populations adapt.
Question 175 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A structural adaptation that helps desert plants conserve water is
A. reduced leaf surface
B. thin cuticle
C. broad leaves
D. large stomata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Small leaves reduce water loss.
Question 176 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The hydrophyte is a plant adapted to live in
A. desert
B. forest floor only
C. mountain tops only
D. water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrophytes are aquatic plants.
Question 177 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The population of organisms in a habitat can be estimated using
A. sampling methods
B. budding
C. fertilization
D. pollination
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Quadrats and transects are common ecological sampling methods.
Question 178 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A quadrat is commonly used in ecology to estimate
A. heart rate
B. enzyme action
C. the distribution of plants
D. blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Quadrats help study organisms that do not move much.
Question 179 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The term carrying capacity refers to
A. the speed of reproduction
B. the total number ever born
C. the age of the oldest organism
D. the maximum population an environment can support
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carrying capacity is the sustainable population limit.
Question 180 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Pollution of water by fertilizers often leads to
A. eutrophication
B. mutation
C. respiration
D. pollination
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Excess nutrients cause overgrowth of algae and oxygen depletion.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 82Question 181 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Cutting down trees indiscriminately can lead to
A. increased oxygen shortage in roots only
B. more pollination
C. thicker humus layers
D. soil erosion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tree removal exposes soil to erosion.
Question 182 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Conservation of natural resources is important because it
A. stops reproduction
B. prevents depletion and extinction
C. eliminates niches
D. reduces variation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Conservation protects resources and biodiversity.
Question 183 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: A biome is a
A. type of enzyme
B. large ecological region with characteristic climate and organisms
C. group of cells
D. single population
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Biomes are broad ecological zones.
Question 184 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: Predators help maintain ecological balance by
A. controlling prey population
B. increasing rainfall
C. making soil acidic
D. preventing photosynthesis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Predation regulates populations.
Question 185 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: High
Question: The association between algae and fungi in lichen is an example of
A. predation
B. saprophytism
C. commensalism
D. mutualism
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Both partners benefit in lichen.
Question 186 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A gene is located on a
A. chromosome
B. centriole
C. vacuole
D. ribosome
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Genes are segments of DNA on chromosomes.
Likelihood: High
Question 187 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The physical expression of a gene is called the
A. allele
B. zygote
C. phenotype
D. genotype
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Phenotype refers to the observable trait.
Likelihood: High
Question 188 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The genetic makeup of an organism is its
A. genotype
B. habit
C. phenotype
D. species
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Genotype refers to the genes carried by the organism.
Likelihood: High
Question 189 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Alternative forms of the same gene are called
A. tissues
B. chromatids
C. alleles
D. zygotes
Likelihood: High
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 83Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alleles occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
Question 190 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A trait controlled by a dominant allele is expressed in the
A. heterozygous state
B. female sex only
C. absence of genes
D. environment only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A dominant allele shows in the heterozygote.
Likelihood: High
Question 191 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: An organism with two identical alleles is
A. mutant
B. homozygous
C. heterozygous
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Homozygous means possessing the same alleles.
Likelihood: High
Question 192 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: High
Question: Crossing Tt with Tt gives a phenotypic ratio of
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:2:1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A monohybrid cross of two heterozygotes yields 3 dominant to 1 recessive.
Question 193 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The genotypic ratio from Tt x Tt is
A. 3:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 1:1
D. 9:3:3:1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The genotypes are TT, Tt, Tt and tt.
Likelihood: High
Question 194 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters is a
A. monohybrid cross
B. back cross
C. dihybrid cross
D. test cross
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A dihybrid cross considers two characters at once.
Likelihood: High
Question 195 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: High
Question: The law stating that alleles separate during gamete formation is Mendel's law of
A. independent assortment only
B. dominance
C. segregation
D. use and disuse
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alleles separate during meiosis.
Question 196 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: When a dominant allele masks a recessive allele, the pattern is
A. complete dominance
B. codominance
C. mutation
D. polyploidy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The dominant allele hides the recessive one.
Likelihood: High
Question 197 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A sudden change in genetic material is called
A. mutation
B. evolution
C. adaptation
D. fertilization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mutations alter genes or chromosomes.
Likelihood: High
Question 198 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: An example of discontinuous variation is
Likelihood: High
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 84A. height
B. blood group
C. weight
D. skin mass
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blood groups fall into distinct categories.
Question 199 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: An example of continuous variation is
A. earlobe attachment
B. height
C. tongue rolling
D. blood group
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Height varies across a range.
Likelihood: High
Question 200 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Sex in humans is determined by the
A. villi
B. sex chromosomes
C. ribosomes
D. red blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: X and Y chromosomes determine sex.
Likelihood: High
Question 201 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A male human has the sex chromosome combination
A. XY
B. YY
C. XX
D. XO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Males carry XY.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 202 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: The process by which living organisms gradually change over long periods is
A. osmosis
B. evolution
C. respiration
D. translation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Evolution is long-term change in populations.
Question 203 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The major source of variation during sexual reproduction is
A. recombination of genes
B. excretion
C. osmosis
D. clotting
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sexual reproduction shuffles genes.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 204 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The inheritance of ABO blood group in humans is an example of
A. mutation only
B. multiple allelism
C. sex linkage
D. incomplete dominance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: More than two alleles control the trait.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 205 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: A test cross is used mainly to determine the
A. rate of respiration
B. genotype of an organism showing the dominant trait
C. habitat of an organism
D. sex of an offspring
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive.
Question 206 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Genes located on the X chromosome are described as
A. lethal
B. autosomal
C. mutant only
D. sex-linked
Correct Answer: D
Likelihood: Medium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 85Explanation: Their inheritance is tied to sex chromosomes.
Question 207 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Color blindness in humans is commonly cited as an example of
A. sex-linked inheritance
B. multiple allelism
C. polygenic inheritance
D. autosomal recessive inheritance only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The gene is carried on the X chromosome.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 208 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Albinism results from the inability to produce
A. auxin
B. keratin
C. hemoglobin
D. melanin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Albinos lack the normal pigment melanin.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 209 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A person with genotype AS is described as
A. a carrier of sickle-cell trait
B. albino
C. normal homozygote
D. sickler
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: AS individuals carry one normal allele and one sickle allele.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 210 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The branch of biology concerned with heredity is
A. taxonomy
B. genetics
C. anatomy
D. ecology
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Genetics studies inheritance and variation.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 211 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: The deliberate crossing of plants or animals to improve qualities is
A. vegetative propagation
B. selective breeding
C. pollution control
D. composting
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Selective breeding chooses parents with desirable traits.
Question 212 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Artificial insemination in livestock helps to
A. improve breeding efficiency
B. increase transpiration
C. reduce chromosome number
D. prevent digestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: It allows controlled breeding with desired males.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 213 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Pasteurization of milk is aimed mainly at
A. destroying harmful microorganisms
B. increasing protein content
C. adding vitamins
D. converting fat to sugar
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Heat treatment reduces pathogens.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 214 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Vaccination protects against disease by
A. preventing digestion
B. raising body temperature permanently
C. killing all red blood cells
D. stimulating antibody production
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vaccines prepare the immune system.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 215 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A vector is an organism that
A. fixes nitrogen
Likelihood: Medium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 86B. produces antibodies
C. pollinates flowers only
D. transmits disease-causing agents
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vectors carry pathogens from one host to another.
Question 216 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Malaria is caused by a
A. fungus
B. protozoan parasite
C. bacterium
D. virus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 217 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The mosquito that transmits malaria is the
A. female Anopheles
B. female Culex
C. male Anopheles
D. male tsetse fly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The female Anopheles transmits Plasmodium.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 218 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Cholera is commonly spread through
A. sunlight
B. genetic mutation
C. lack of sleep
D. contaminated water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Contaminated water can carry the pathogen.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 219 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: One way of controlling the spread of communicable diseases is
A. storing refuse openly
B. drinking polluted water
C. proper sanitation
D. sharing needles
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sanitation reduces pathogen transmission.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 220 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Antibiotics are effective against
A. bacterial diseases
B. all hereditary conditions
C. all viral diseases
D. vitamin deficiencies
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Antibiotics target bacteria.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 221 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts starch to maltose?
A. peptidase
B. amylase
C. maltase
D. lipase
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amylase acts on starch.
Question 222 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts proteins to peptides?
A. sucrase
B. amylase
C. peptidase
D. pepsin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pepsin acts on proteins.
Question 223 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts fats to fatty acids and glycerol?
A. maltase
B. lipase
C. pepsin
D. peptidase
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lipase acts on fats.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 87Question 224 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts maltose to glucose?
A. maltase
B. amylase
C. lipase
D. pepsin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Maltase acts on maltose.
Question 225 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts sucrose to glucose and fructose?
A. amylase
B. maltase
C. sucrase
D. pepsin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sucrase acts on sucrose.
Question 226 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which enzyme converts proteins to amino acids?
A. amylase
B. peptidase
C. lipase
D. maltase
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Peptidase acts on proteins.
Question 227 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous tall plants, the probability of a short offspring is
A. 1/2
B. 3/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tt x Tt gives one recessive out of four offspring.
Question 228 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: In the cross Tt x tt, the probability of a tall offspring is
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 1
Likelihood: Medium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Half the offspring are Tt and therefore tall.
Question 229 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: If black coat B is dominant over white b, the genotype of a white animal is
A. BO
B. BB
C. bb
D. Bb
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A recessive trait appears only in the homozygous recessive state.
Question 230 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: If a homozygous dominant plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant, all the F1 offspring will be
A. homozygous recessive
B. heterozygous dominant
C. all recessive
D. homozygous dominant
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: TT x tt produces all Tt offspring.
Question 231 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The probability of getting a male child in humans is approximately
Likelihood: Medium
A. 3/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The father contributes X or Y with roughly equal chance.
Question 232 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The genotypes possible for blood group A are
A. IAIB only
B. IBIB or IBi
C. IAIA or IAi
Likelihood: Medium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 88D. ii only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Blood group A may be homozygous or heterozygous.
Question 233 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The genotype for blood group O is
A. IAIB
B. ii
C. IBi
D. IAi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blood group O is recessive.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 234 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: A test cross involves crossing an individual with the dominant phenotype to a
A. homozygous dominant individual
B. homozygous recessive individual
C. heterozygous dominant individual
D. mutant individual
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This reveals whether the dominant individual is homozygous or heterozygous.
Question 235 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: If R represents round seeds and r wrinkled seeds, the genotype rr will have
A. round seeds
B. wrinkled seeds
C. no seed coat
D. both seed types
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The recessive trait appears in rr.
Question 236 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The ratio 9:3:3:1 is expected in the F2 generation of a
A. test cross
B. monohybrid cross
C. dihybrid cross
D. back cross
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: It is the classical dihybrid phenotypic ratio.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 237 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: The opening through which undigested food leaves the body is the
A. ileum
B. duodenum
C. appendix
D. anus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Undigested food is egested through the anus.
Question 238 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: The union of a male and female nucleus in flowering plants occurs in the
A. ovule
B. filament
C. sepal
D. anther
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fertilization occurs within the ovule.
Question 239 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: The first consumers in a grazing food chain are
A. decomposers
B. herbivores
C. predators
D. producers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Herbivores feed directly on producers.
Question 240 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: Variation that is caused mainly by environmental factors is often seen in
A. blood group
B. tongue rolling only
C. body weight
D. sex
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Body weight can be strongly influenced by diet and lifestyle.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 89Question 241 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The main nitrogenous waste excreted by mammals is
A. glucose
B. uric acid
C. ammonia
D. urea
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mammals convert ammonia to urea in the liver.
Question 242 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The organ mainly responsible for osmoregulation in mammals is the
A. liver
B. skin
C. spleen
D. kidney
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The kidneys regulate water and salts.
Question 243 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the
A. villus
B. alveolus
C. sarcomere
D. nephron
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The nephron filters blood and forms urine.
Question 244 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Ultrafiltration occurs in the
A. ureter
B. glomerulus
C. bladder
D. renal pelvis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blood is filtered under pressure in the glomerulus.
Question 245 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder is the
A. vena cava
B. urethra
C. duodenum
D. ureter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ureter connects the kidney to the bladder.
Question 246 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Sweating helps to regulate body temperature by
A. forming antibodies
B. preventing breathing
C. increasing blood sugar
D. cooling the skin through evaporation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Evaporation of sweat removes heat.
Question 247 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The skin excretes mainly
A. oxygen only
B. starch and glucose
C. water, salts and small amounts of urea
D. carbon dioxide only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: These wastes leave the body in sweat.
Question 248 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The supporting tissue found at the tip of the nose is
A. cartilage
B. tendon
C. bone
D. muscle
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cartilage provides flexible support.
Question 249 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The skeleton of insects is an
A. hydrostatic skeleton
B. exoskeleton
C. endoskeleton
D. cartilaginous skeleton
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 90Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Insects possess an external chitinous skeleton.
Question 250 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Movement at a joint is produced mainly by the action of
A. muscles
B. ligaments only
C. cartilage only
D. bones only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Muscles contract and move bones.
Question 251 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Tendons connect
A. muscle to muscle
B. bone to bone
C. nerve to muscle
D. muscle to bone
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tendons attach muscles to bones.
Question 252 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Ligaments connect
A. cartilage to bone
B. bone to bone
C. nerve to muscle
D. muscle to bone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ligaments hold bones together at joints.
Question 253 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The joint found at the elbow is a
A. pivot joint
B. ball and socket joint
C. gliding joint
D. hinge joint
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The elbow mainly allows movement in one plane.
Question 254 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The joint at the shoulder is a
A. ball and socket joint
B. hinge joint
C. pivot joint
D. fixed joint
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The shoulder allows movement in many directions.
Question 255 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The vertebral column helps in
A. digestion of food
B. production of bile
C. support and protection of the spinal cord
D. blood clotting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The backbone supports the body and protects the spinal cord.
Question 256 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The muscular tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach is the
A. duodenum
B. oesophagus
C. trachea
D. ileum
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Food passes down the oesophagus.
Question 257 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The process by which liquid water is lost from the tip of leaves is
A. transpiration
B. diffusion
C. guttation
D. respiration
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Guttation is the loss of water droplets at leaf margins.
Question 258 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: An adaptation of fish for movement in water is the presence of
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 91A. jointed limbs
B. lungs with alveoli
C. feathers
D. streamlined body shape
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A streamlined body reduces resistance in water.
Question 259 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Birds fly efficiently partly because their bodies are
A. segmented
B. gelatinous
C. flattened
D. streamlined
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Streamlining reduces air resistance.
Question 260 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The earthworm moves mainly with the aid of
A. wings and fins
B. cilia and flagella
C. joints and tendons
D. setae and muscles
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Setae grip the soil while muscles contract.
Question 261 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The shell of a snail serves mainly for
A. photosynthesis
B. protection
C. gas exchange
D. blood transport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The shell shields the soft body.
Question 262 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The hydrostatic skeleton of an earthworm depends on
A. chitin
B. fluid pressure in the body
C. cartilage
D. bone tissue
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fluid-filled compartments help maintain shape.
Question 263 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The organ that removes excess water from a freshwater protozoan is the
A. nucleus
B. contractile vacuole
C. cell wall
D. chloroplast
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It pumps out excess water.
Question 264 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: The kidneys help to maintain the constancy of the internal environment by
A. pollination
B. translocation
C. homeostasis
D. germination
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Homeostasis is the maintenance of internal balance.
Question 265 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: A symptom of kidney failure may include
A. longer bones
B. better vision
C. reduced urine formation
D. rapid photosynthesis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Faulty kidneys may reduce urine output.
Question 266 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the
A. villus
B. alveolus
C. nephron
D. neuron
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 92Explanation: The neuron conducts nerve impulses.
Question 267 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The part of the brain responsible for balance is the
A. medulla
B. pituitary
C. cerebellum
D. cerebrum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates balance and posture.
Question 268 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The medulla oblongata mainly controls
A. bone formation
B. memory and intelligence
C. involuntary actions
D. vision only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The medulla controls activities such as breathing and heartbeat.
Question 269 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The receptor for light in the eye is the
A. retina
B. lens
C. iris
D. cornea
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The retina contains light-sensitive cells.
Question 270 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colored part of the eye that controls pupil size is the
A. iris
B. cornea
C. sclera
D. retina
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
Question 271 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Short-sightedness can be corrected with
A. cylindrical lens only
B. convex lens
C. concave lens
D. prism
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A concave lens diverges light before it enters the eye.
Question 272 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The organ responsible for hearing and balance is the
A. nose
B. skin
C. ear
D. eye
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ear detects sound and helps maintain balance.
Question 273 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The hormone that regulates blood sugar level is
A. estrogen
B. insulin
C. adrenaline
D. thyroxine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Insulin lowers blood glucose.
Question 274 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The hormone responsible for 'fight or flight' response is
A. insulin
B. auxin
C. progesterone
D. adrenaline
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Adrenaline prepares the body for emergencies.
Question 275 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The endocrine gland found in the neck is the
A. adrenal gland
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 93B. pancreas
C. pituitary gland
D. thyroid gland
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The thyroid lies in the neck.
Question 276 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Tropism is a response of a plant to
A. internal bleeding
B. parasites
C. directional stimulus
D. food shortage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plant growth responses to directional stimuli are tropisms.
Question 277 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Bending of a plant shoot towards light is called
A. hydrotropism
B. geotropism
C. thigmotropism
D. phototropism
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Phototropism is a response to light.
Question 278 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Growth of roots towards water is
A. chemotropism
B. phototropism
C. hydrotropism
D. thigmotropism
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hydrotropism is a response to water.
Question 279 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Auxins are plant hormones that promote
A. blood clotting
B. protein digestion
C. cell elongation
D. pollen formation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Auxins stimulate growth in shoots.
Question 280 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The opening and closing of stomata is an example of response involving
A. cell division only
B. chromosome mutation
C. turgor changes in guard cells
D. meiosis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Guard cells open and close stomata by changing turgidity.
Question 281 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: A reflex action is one that is
A. rapid and involuntary
B. slow and learned
C. restricted to plants
D. always conscious
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Reflexes are automatic responses to stimuli.
Question 282 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The path taken by a nerve impulse during a reflex action is the
A. blood vessel
B. spinal cord only
C. motor cortex
D. reflex arc
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The reflex arc is the pathway of the reflex.
Question 283 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The part of the ear that contains the organ of hearing is the
A. semicircular canal
B. eardrum
C. cochlea
D. pinna
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The cochlea contains the sensory cells for hearing.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 94Question 284 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The hormone secreted by the pancreas besides insulin is
A. auxin
B. testosterone
C. glucagon
D. adrenaline
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Glucagon raises blood sugar level.
Question 285 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The pituitary gland is often called the master gland because it
A. controls other endocrine glands
B. forms red blood cells
C. stores bile
D. produces urine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: It secretes hormones that regulate other glands.
Question 286 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The receptor cells for smell are located in the
A. ear
B. tongue
C. nose
D. skin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Olfactory receptors are in the nose.
Question 287 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The taste buds are found mainly on the
A. teeth
B. tongue
C. gums
D. lips
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Taste receptors are concentrated on the tongue.
Question 288 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: The external ear mainly helps to
A. filter blood
B. collect sound waves
C. digest food
D. balance blood sugar
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The pinna directs sound into the ear canal.
Question 289 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: When the hand touches a hot object and is withdrawn quickly, the coordinator is mainly the
A. kidney
B. pituitary gland
C. liver
D. spinal cord
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The spinal cord coordinates many reflex actions.
Question 290 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: A nastic movement in plants differs from a tropic movement because it is
A. non-directional
B. caused by insects only
C. always slower
D. restricted to roots
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nastic movements do not depend on the direction of the stimulus.
Question 291 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the nucleolus?
A. formation of ribosomes
B. site of many metabolic reactions
C. breakdown of dead organic matter
D. gaseous exchange in leaves
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The nucleolus is mainly responsible for formation of ribosomes.
Question 292 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for formation of ribosomes?
A. adrenaline
B. nucleolus
C. stigma
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 95D. lysosome
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nucleolus performs formation of ribosomes.
Question 293 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the centrioles?
A. urine formation
B. joining bone to bone
C. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
D. manufacture of carbohydrate using light energy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The centrioles is mainly responsible for organization of spindle fibres in animal cells.
Question 294 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for organization of spindle fibres in animal cells?
A. allele
B. vaccination
C. centrioles
D. xylem
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Centrioles performs organization of spindle fibres in animal cells.
Question 295 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the chloroplast?
A. transmission of hereditary traits
B. production of digestive enzymes
C. manufacture of carbohydrate using light energy
D. intracellular digestion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The chloroplast is mainly responsible for manufacture of carbohydrate using light energy.
Question 296 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for manufacture of carbohydrate using light energy?
A. iris
B. aorta
C. adrenaline
D. chloroplast
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chloroplast performs manufacture of carbohydrate using light energy.
Question 297 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the Golgi apparatus?
A. support and protection in plant cells
B. destruction of harmful microbes in milk
C. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
D. modification and packaging of secretions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is mainly responsible for modification and packaging of secretions.
Question 298 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for modification and packaging of secretions?
A. vaccination
B. cytoplasm
C. Golgi apparatus
D. palisade mesophyll
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Golgi apparatus performs modification and packaging of secretions.
Question 299 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the lysosome?
A. intracellular digestion
B. flexible support in some body parts
C. modification and packaging of secretions
D. absorption of water and minerals
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The lysosome is mainly responsible for intracellular digestion.
Question 300 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for intracellular digestion?
A. centrioles
B. anther
C. lysosome
D. vena cava
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lysosome performs intracellular digestion.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 96Question 301 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the cell wall?
A. digestion of proteins in the stomach
B. support and protection in plant cells
C. production of bile
D. absorption of digested food
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cell wall is mainly responsible for support and protection in plant cells.
Question 302 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for support and protection in plant cells?
A. cell wall
B. amylase
C. chloroplast
D. medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cell wall performs support and protection in plant cells.
Question 303 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the cytoplasm?
A. modification and packaging of secretions
B. protection of spinal cord
C. production of sperm cells
D. site of many metabolic reactions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The cytoplasm is mainly responsible for site of many metabolic reactions.
Question 304 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for site of many metabolic reactions?
A. villus
B. cytoplasm
C. ureter
D. palisade mesophyll
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cytoplasm performs site of many metabolic reactions.
Question 305 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the xylem?
A. transport of water and mineral salts
B. breakdown of dead organic matter
C. return of deoxygenated blood to the heart
D. alternative form of a gene
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The xylem is mainly responsible for transport of water and mineral salts.
Question 306 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for transport of water and mineral salts?
A. xylem
B. stigma
C. lymph
D. ovary
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Xylem performs transport of water and mineral salts.
Question 307 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the phloem?
A. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
B. transport of oxygen
C. transport of manufactured food
D. absorption of digested food
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The phloem is mainly responsible for transport of manufactured food.
Question 308 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for transport of manufactured food?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. phloem
C. vertebral column
D. vaccination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Phloem performs transport of manufactured food.
Question 309 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the palisade mesophyll?
A. site of many metabolic reactions
B. trapping of light for photosynthesis
C. digestion of starch
D. absorption of water and minerals
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 97Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The palisade mesophyll is mainly responsible for trapping of light for photosynthesis.
Question 310 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for trapping of light for photosynthesis?
A. pancreas
B. palisade mesophyll
C. chromosome
D. ovary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Palisade mesophyll performs trapping of light for photosynthesis.
Question 311 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the stomata?
A. gaseous exchange in leaves
B. absorption of digested food
C. storage of food in many seeds
D. digestion of starch
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The stomata is mainly responsible for gaseous exchange in leaves.
Question 312 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for gaseous exchange in leaves?
A. cotyledon
B. stomata
C. decomposers
D. centrioles
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Stomata performs gaseous exchange in leaves.
Question 313 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the root hair?
A. absorption of water and minerals
B. production of ova in females
C. increase of absorptive surface area
D. stimulation of immunity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The root hair is mainly responsible for absorption of water and minerals.
Question 314 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for absorption of water and minerals?
A. ileum
B. anther
C. chloroplast
D. root hair
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Root hair performs absorption of water and minerals.
Question 315 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the ileum?
A. production of digestive enzymes
B. coordination of balance
C. absorption of digested food
D. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ileum is mainly responsible for absorption of digested food.
Question 316 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for absorption of digested food?
A. villus
B. ileum
C. vaccination
D. medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ileum performs absorption of digested food.
Question 317 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the villus?
A. stimulation of immunity
B. transport of oxygen
C. modification and packaging of secretions
D. increase of absorptive surface area
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The villus is mainly responsible for increase of absorptive surface area.
Question 318 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for increase of absorptive surface area?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 98A. ovary
B. gene
C. villus
D. xylem
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Villus performs increase of absorptive surface area.
Question 319 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the liver?
A. urine formation
B. regulation of blood sugar level
C. breakdown of dead organic matter
D. production of bile
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The liver is mainly responsible for production of bile.
Question 320 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for production of bile?
A. liver
B. hemoglobin
C. phloem
D. stomata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Liver performs production of bile.
Question 321 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the pancreas?
A. detection of light
B. absorption of water and minerals
C. production of digestive enzymes
D. transport of oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pancreas is mainly responsible for production of digestive enzymes.
Question 322 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for production of digestive enzymes?
A. vena cava
B. quadrat
C. pancreas
D. alveoli
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pancreas performs production of digestive enzymes.
Question 323 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the amylase?
A. sampling of organisms in a habitat
B. digestion of starch
C. formation of ribosomes
D. manufacture of food in ecosystems
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The amylase is mainly responsible for digestion of starch.
Question 324 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for digestion of starch?
A. hemoglobin
B. amylase
C. cerebellum
D. root hair
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amylase performs digestion of starch.
Question 325 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the lipase?
A. trapping of light for photosynthesis
B. production of pollen grains
C. clotting of blood
D. digestion of fats
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The lipase is mainly responsible for digestion of fats.
Question 326 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for digestion of fats?
A. iris
B. hemoglobin
C. stomata
D. lipase
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 99Explanation: Lipase performs digestion of fats.
Question 327 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the pepsin?
A. digestion of starch
B. formation of ribosomes
C. digestion of proteins in the stomach
D. joining bone to bone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pepsin is mainly responsible for digestion of proteins in the stomach.
Question 328 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for digestion of proteins in the stomach?
A. lymph
B. allele
C. amylase
D. pepsin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pepsin performs digestion of proteins in the stomach.
Question 329 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the trachea?
A. return of deoxygenated blood to the heart
B. modification and packaging of secretions
C. passage of air to the lungs
D. joining bone to bone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The trachea is mainly responsible for passage of air to the lungs.
Question 330 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for passage of air to the lungs?
A. vena cava
B. anther
C. trachea
D. lymph
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Trachea performs passage of air to the lungs.
Question 331 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the alveoli?
A. production of ova in females
B. detection of light
C. gaseous exchange
D. alternative form of a gene
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The alveoli is mainly responsible for gaseous exchange.
Question 332 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for gaseous exchange?
A. chloroplast
B. lysosome
C. alveoli
D. vaccination
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alveoli performs gaseous exchange.
Question 333 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the hemoglobin?
A. intracellular digestion
B. digestion of starch
C. transport of oxygen
D. site of many metabolic reactions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The hemoglobin is mainly responsible for transport of oxygen.
Question 334 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for transport of oxygen?
A. lysosome
B. quadrat
C. stomata
D. hemoglobin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hemoglobin performs transport of oxygen.
Question 335 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the platelets?
A. clotting of blood
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 100B. attachment of muscle to bone
C. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
D. breakdown of dead organic matter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The platelets is mainly responsible for clotting of blood.
Question 336 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for clotting of blood?
A. stomata
B. cytoplasm
C. platelets
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Platelets performs clotting of blood.
Question 337 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the lymph?
A. return of tissue fluid to the blood
B. transport of urine to the bladder
C. production of sperm cells
D. manufacture of food in ecosystems
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The lymph is mainly responsible for return of tissue fluid to the blood.
Question 338 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for return of tissue fluid to the blood?
A. cytoplasm
B. pancreas
C. trachea
D. lymph
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Lymph performs return of tissue fluid to the blood.
Question 339 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the aorta?
A. modification and packaging of secretions
B. return of tissue fluid to the blood
C. trapping of light for photosynthesis
D. distribution of oxygenated blood to the body
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The aorta is mainly responsible for distribution of oxygenated blood to the body.
Question 340 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for distribution of oxygenated blood to the body?
A. pepsin
B. pasteurization
C. aorta
D. insulin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Aorta performs distribution of oxygenated blood to the body.
Question 341 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the vena cava?
A. gaseous exchange in leaves
B. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
C. return of deoxygenated blood to the heart
D. increase of absorptive surface area
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The vena cava is mainly responsible for return of deoxygenated blood to the heart.
Question 342 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for return of deoxygenated blood to the heart?
A. vena cava
B. trachea
C. xylem
D. allele
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vena cava performs return of deoxygenated blood to the heart.
Question 343 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the nephron?
A. digestion of starch
B. regulation of blood sugar level
C. urine formation
D. support and protection in plant cells
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nephron is mainly responsible for urine formation.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 101Question 344 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for urine formation?
A. lymph
B. aorta
C. nephron
D. root hair
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nephron performs urine formation.
Question 345 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the ureter?
A. flexible support in some body parts
B. transport of urine to the bladder
C. digestion of starch
D. joining bone to bone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The ureter is mainly responsible for transport of urine to the bladder.
Question 346 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for transport of urine to the bladder?
A. chromosome
B. palisade mesophyll
C. producers
D. ureter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ureter performs transport of urine to the bladder.
Question 347 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the tendon?
A. urine formation
B. attachment of muscle to bone
C. exchange between mother and fetus
D. stimulation of immunity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The tendon is mainly responsible for attachment of muscle to bone.
Question 348 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for attachment of muscle to bone?
A. tendon
B. aorta
C. pasteurization
D. ovary
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tendon performs attachment of muscle to bone.
Question 349 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the ligament?
A. protection of spinal cord
B. production of ova in females
C. joining bone to bone
D. production of digestive enzymes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ligament is mainly responsible for joining bone to bone.
Question 350 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for joining bone to bone?
A. chloroplast
B. stigma
C. ligament
D. decomposers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ligament performs joining bone to bone.
Question 351 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the cartilage?
A. increase of absorptive surface area
B. gaseous exchange in leaves
C. flexible support in some body parts
D. absorption of water and minerals
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The cartilage is mainly responsible for flexible support in some body parts.
Question 352 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for flexible support in some body parts?
A. ureter
B. cell wall
C. cartilage
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 102D. adrenaline
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cartilage performs flexible support in some body parts.
Question 353 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the vertebral column?
A. digestion of starch
B. coordination of balance
C. gaseous exchange
D. protection of spinal cord
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The vertebral column is mainly responsible for protection of spinal cord.
Question 354 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for protection of spinal cord?
A. vertebral column
B. testis
C. alveoli
D. vena cava
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vertebral column performs protection of spinal cord.
Question 355 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the anther?
A. alternative form of a gene
B. formation of ribosomes
C. production of pollen grains
D. manufacture of food in ecosystems
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The anther is mainly responsible for production of pollen grains.
Question 356 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for production of pollen grains?
A. palisade mesophyll
B. ovary
C. cotyledon
D. anther
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Anther performs production of pollen grains.
Question 357 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the stigma?
A. reception of pollen grains
B. exchange between mother and fetus
C. alternative form of a gene
D. digestion of proteins in the stomach
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The stigma is mainly responsible for reception of pollen grains.
Question 358 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for reception of pollen grains?
A. aorta
B. retina
C. stigma
D. vertebral column
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stigma performs reception of pollen grains.
Question 359 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the ovary?
A. return of deoxygenated blood to the heart
B. digestion of fats
C. housing of ovules
D. trapping of light for photosynthesis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ovary is mainly responsible for housing of ovules.
Question 360 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for housing of ovules?
A. pancreas
B. hemoglobin
C. decomposers
D. ovary
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ovary performs housing of ovules.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 103Question 361 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the placenta?
A. exchange between mother and fetus
B. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
C. digestion of fats
D. return of tissue fluid to the blood
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The placenta is mainly responsible for exchange between mother and fetus.
Question 362 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for exchange between mother and fetus?
A. lipase
B. vertebral column
C. producers
D. placenta
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Placenta performs exchange between mother and fetus.
Question 363 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the testis?
A. production of sperm cells
B. attachment of muscle to bone
C. passage of air to the lungs
D. functional role of an organism
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The testis is mainly responsible for production of sperm cells.
Question 364 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for production of sperm cells?
A. retina
B. testis
C. cell wall
D. cerebellum
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Testis performs production of sperm cells.
Question 365 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for production of ova in females?
A. anther
B. vaccination
C. ovary
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ovary performs production of ova in females.
Question 366 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the cotyledon?
A. return of deoxygenated blood to the heart
B. storage of food in many seeds
C. production of pollen grains
D. breakdown of dead organic matter
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cotyledon is mainly responsible for storage of food in many seeds.
Question 367 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for storage of food in many seeds?
A. ileum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. cotyledon
D. root hair
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cotyledon performs storage of food in many seeds.
Question 368 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the cerebellum?
A. coordination of balance
B. return of tissue fluid to the blood
C. breakdown of dead organic matter
D. modification and packaging of secretions
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The cerebellum is mainly responsible for coordination of balance.
Question 369 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for coordination of balance?
A. pasteurization
B. cerebellum
C. ligament
D. anther
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 104Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cerebellum performs coordination of balance.
Question 370 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the medulla oblongata?
A. control of involuntary actions
B. production of digestive enzymes
C. preparation of the body for emergencies
D. organization of spindle fibres in animal cells
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The medulla oblongata is mainly responsible for control of involuntary actions.
Question 371 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for control of involuntary actions?
A. ovary
B. medulla oblongata
C. root hair
D. cartilage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Medulla oblongata performs control of involuntary actions.
Question 372 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the iris?
A. functional role of an organism
B. manufacture of food in ecosystems
C. digestion of starch
D. control of the amount of light entering the eye
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The iris is mainly responsible for control of the amount of light entering the eye.
Question 373 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for control of the amount of light entering the eye?
A. stomata
B. Golgi apparatus
C. iris
D. aorta
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Iris performs control of the amount of light entering the eye.
Question 374 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the retina?
A. preparation of the body for emergencies
B. detection of light
C. increase of absorptive surface area
D. digestion of fats
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The retina is mainly responsible for detection of light.
Question 375 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for detection of light?
A. gene
B. adrenaline
C. retina
D. nucleolus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Retina performs detection of light.
Question 376 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the insulin?
A. regulation of blood sugar level
B. stimulation of immunity
C. formation of ribosomes
D. storage of food in many seeds
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The insulin is mainly responsible for regulation of blood sugar level.
Question 377 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for regulation of blood sugar level?
A. insulin
B. iris
C. decomposers
D. lipase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Insulin performs regulation of blood sugar level.
Question 378 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the adrenaline?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 105A. preparation of the body for emergencies
B. digestion of starch
C. joining bone to bone
D. increase of absorptive surface area
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The adrenaline is mainly responsible for preparation of the body for emergencies.
Question 379 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for preparation of the body for emergencies?
A. adrenaline
B. ovary
C. nucleolus
D. cytoplasm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Adrenaline performs preparation of the body for emergencies.
Question 380 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the producers?
A. regulation of blood sugar level
B. passage of air to the lungs
C. manufacture of food in ecosystems
D. site of many metabolic reactions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The producers is mainly responsible for manufacture of food in ecosystems.
Question 381 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for manufacture of food in ecosystems?
A. producers
B. alveoli
C. lipase
D. medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Producers performs manufacture of food in ecosystems.
Question 382 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the decomposers?
A. trapping of light for photosynthesis
B. reception of pollen grains
C. breakdown of dead organic matter
D. absorption of digested food
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The decomposers is mainly responsible for breakdown of dead organic matter.
Question 383 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for breakdown of dead organic matter?
A. insulin
B. decomposers
C. alveoli
D. retina
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Decomposers performs breakdown of dead organic matter.
Question 384 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the quadrat?
A. sampling of organisms in a habitat
B. digestion of proteins in the stomach
C. control of the amount of light entering the eye
D. protection of spinal cord
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The quadrat is mainly responsible for sampling of organisms in a habitat.
Question 385 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for sampling of organisms in a habitat?
A. niche
B. quadrat
C. chloroplast
D. aorta
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Quadrat performs sampling of organisms in a habitat.
Question 386 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the niche?
A. functional role of an organism
B. regulation of blood sugar level
C. housing of ovules
D. control of involuntary actions
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 106Explanation: The niche is mainly responsible for functional role of an organism.
Question 387 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for functional role of an organism?
A. trachea
B. niche
C. stomata
D. anther
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Niche performs functional role of an organism.
Question 388 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: What is the main function of the chromosome?
A. flexible support in some body parts
B. carrying of genes
C. sampling of organisms in a habitat
D. transport of manufactured food
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The chromosome is mainly responsible for carrying of genes.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 389 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for carrying of genes?
A. hemoglobin
B. insulin
C. iris
D. chromosome
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chromosome performs carrying of genes.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 390 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the gene?
A. transmission of hereditary traits
B. sampling of organisms in a habitat
C. production of bile
D. passage of air to the lungs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The gene is mainly responsible for transmission of hereditary traits.
Question 391 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for transmission of hereditary traits?
A. ovary
B. amylase
C. gene
D. pepsin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gene performs transmission of hereditary traits.
Question 392 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: What is the main function of the allele?
A. control of involuntary actions
B. production of ova in females
C. modification and packaging of secretions
D. alternative form of a gene
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The allele is mainly responsible for alternative form of a gene.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 393 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for alternative form of a gene?
Likelihood: Medium
A. allele
B. anther
C. xylem
D. insulin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Allele performs alternative form of a gene.
Question 394 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the vaccination?
A. modification and packaging of secretions
B. trapping of light for photosynthesis
C. stimulation of immunity
D. urine formation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The vaccination is mainly responsible for stimulation of immunity.
Question 395 A. testis
Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for stimulation of immunity?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 107B. vaccination
C. ligament
D. nephron
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vaccination performs stimulation of immunity.
Question 396 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: What is the main function of the pasteurization?
A. carrying of genes
B. destruction of harmful microbes in milk
C. protection of spinal cord
D. support and protection in plant cells
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The pasteurization is mainly responsible for destruction of harmful microbes in milk.
Question 397 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which structure is mainly responsible for destruction of harmful microbes in milk?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. medulla oblongata
C. alveoli
D. pasteurization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pasteurization performs destruction of harmful microbes in milk.
Question 398 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: The end product of the digestion of starch is
A. maltose
B. glucose and fructose
C. fatty acids and glycerol
D. glucose
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Digestion of starch ultimately yields maltose.
Question 399 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: The end product of the digestion of proteins is
A. peptides
B. maltose
C. amino acids
D. fatty acids and glycerol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Digestion of proteins ultimately yields amino acids.
Question 400 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Medium
Question: The end product of the digestion of fats is
A. maltose
B. glucose
C. fatty acids and glycerol
D. glucose and fructose
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Digestion of fats ultimately yields fatty acids and glycerol.
Question 401 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Low
Question: The end product of the digestion of maltose is
A. peptides
B. glucose
C. glucose and fructose
D. amino acids
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Digestion of maltose ultimately yields glucose.
Question 402 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Low
Question: The end product of the digestion of sucrose is
A. maltose
B. fatty acids and glycerol
C. glucose and fructose
D. peptides
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Digestion of sucrose ultimately yields glucose and fructose.
Question 403 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of arteries?
A. carry blood away from the heart
B. allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects
C. carry blood towards the heart
D. allow exchange between blood and tissues
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 108Question 404 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure carry blood away from the heart?
A. capillaries
B. arteries
C. left atrium
D. plasma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
Question 405 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of veins?
A. conduct air into the lungs
B. allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects
C. defend the body against infection
D. carry blood towards the heart
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Veins carry blood towards the heart.
Question 406 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure carry blood towards the heart?
A. bronchi
B. veins
C. tracheoles
D. capillaries
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Veins carry blood towards the heart.
Question 407 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of capillaries?
A. carry blood towards the heart
B. receives blood from the lungs
C. pumps blood to the body
D. allow exchange between blood and tissues
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Capillaries allow exchange between blood and tissues.
Question 408 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure allow exchange between blood and tissues?
A. right atrium
B. capillaries
C. veins
D. tracheoles
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Capillaries allow exchange between blood and tissues.
Question 409 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of red blood cells?
A. transport oxygen
B. transports dissolved substances
C. receives blood from the lungs
D. deliver air directly to insect tissues
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Red blood cells transport oxygen.
Question 410 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure transport oxygen?
A. capillaries
B. plasma
C. red blood cells
D. arteries
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Red blood cells transport oxygen.
Question 411 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of white blood cells?
A. pumps blood to the lungs
B. carry blood away from the heart
C. transport oxygen
D. defend the body against infection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: White blood cells defend the body against infection.
Question 412 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure defend the body against infection?
A. veins
B. diaphragm
C. white blood cells
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 109D. bronchi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: White blood cells defend the body against infection.
Question 413 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of plasma?
A. receives blood from the lungs
B. carry blood towards the heart
C. deliver air directly to insect tissues
D. transports dissolved substances
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Plasma transports dissolved substances.
Question 414 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure transports dissolved substances?
A. right atrium
B. white blood cells
C. plasma
D. spiracles
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plasma transports dissolved substances.
Question 415 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of right ventricle?
A. pumps blood to the lungs
B. allow exchange between blood and tissues
C. defend the body against infection
D. carry blood away from the heart
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
Question 416 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure pumps blood to the lungs?
A. left ventricle
B. spiracles
C. veins
D. right ventricle
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
Question 417 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of left ventricle?
A. pumps blood to the body
B. conduct air into the lungs
C. allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects
D. allow exchange between blood and tissues
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Left ventricle pumps blood to the body.
Question 418 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure pumps blood to the body?
A. white blood cells
B. diaphragm
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Left ventricle pumps blood to the body.
Question 419 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of right atrium?
A. receives blood from the body
B. carry blood towards the heart
C. allow exchange between blood and tissues
D. pumps blood to the lungs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Right atrium receives blood from the body.
Question 420 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure receives blood from the body?
A. right ventricle
B. right atrium
C. spiracles
D. left ventricle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Right atrium receives blood from the body.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 110Question 421 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of left atrium?
A. allow exchange between blood and tissues
B. carry blood away from the heart
C. receives blood from the lungs
D. carry blood towards the heart
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Left atrium receives blood from the lungs.
Question 422 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure receives blood from the lungs?
A. left ventricle
B. diaphragm
C. left atrium
D. tracheoles
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Left atrium receives blood from the lungs.
Question 423 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of diaphragm?
A. deliver air directly to insect tissues
B. receives blood from the lungs
C. transports dissolved substances
D. assists breathing
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Diaphragm assists breathing.
Question 424 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure assists breathing?
A. tracheoles
B. diaphragm
C. left ventricle
D. veins
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Diaphragm assists breathing.
Question 425 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of bronchi?
A. carry blood towards the heart
B. assists breathing
C. conduct air into the lungs
D. defend the body against infection
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bronchi conduct air into the lungs.
Question 426 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure conduct air into the lungs?
A. plasma
B. right atrium
C. diaphragm
D. bronchi
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bronchi conduct air into the lungs.
Question 427 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of spiracles?
A. pumps blood to the body
B. transports dissolved substances
C. allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects
D. assists breathing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Spiracles allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects.
Question 428 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects?
A. diaphragm
B. spiracles
C. arteries
D. capillaries
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spiracles allow air to enter the tracheal system of insects.
Question 429 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: What is the major function of tracheoles?
A. deliver air directly to insect tissues
B. pumps blood to the body
C. transports dissolved substances
D. carry blood towards the heart
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 111Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tracheoles deliver air directly to insect tissues.
Question 430 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: Which structure deliver air directly to insect tissues?
A. right atrium
B. tracheoles
C. arteries
D. red blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tracheoles deliver air directly to insect tissues.
Question 431 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of thyroxine is to
A. promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics
B. promotes growth of body tissues
C. regulates metabolic rate
D. helps maintain pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Thyroxine regulates metabolic rate.
Question 432 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone regulates metabolic rate?
A. testosterone
B. thyroxine
C. estrogen
D. growth hormone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Thyroxine does this.
Question 433 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of growth hormone is to
A. regulates metabolic rate
B. helps maintain pregnancy
C. promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics
D. promotes growth of body tissues
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Growth hormone promotes growth of body tissues.
Question 434 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone promotes growth of body tissues?
A. growth hormone
B. testosterone
C. estrogen
D. thyroxine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Growth hormone does this.
Question 435 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of progesterone is to
A. helps maintain pregnancy
B. stimulates elongation in plant shoots
C. regulates metabolic rate
D. promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Progesterone helps maintain pregnancy.
Question 436 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone helps maintain pregnancy?
A. progesterone
B. auxin
C. estrogen
D. testosterone
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Progesterone does this.
Question 437 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of estrogen is to
A. stimulates elongation in plant shoots
B. helps maintain pregnancy
C. promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics
D. regulates metabolic rate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Estrogen promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics.
Question 438 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 112A. progesterone
B. estrogen
C. testosterone
D. auxin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Estrogen does this.
Question 439 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of testosterone is to
A. promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics
B. promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics
C. promotes growth of body tissues
D. regulates metabolic rate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Testosterone promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
Question 440 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics?
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. testosterone
D. thyroxine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testosterone does this.
Question 441 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The function of auxin is to
A. stimulates elongation in plant shoots
B. promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics
C. promotes growth of body tissues
D. promotes development of female secondary sexual characteristics
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Auxin stimulates elongation in plant shoots.
Question 442 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: Which hormone stimulates elongation in plant shoots?
A. testosterone
B. estrogen
C. thyroxine
D. auxin
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Auxin does this.
Question 443 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, habitat refers to
A. period of inactivity during cold conditions
B. the place where an organism lives
C. features that help an organism survive
D. period of inactivity during hot dry conditions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Habitat means the place where an organism lives.
Question 444 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'the place where an organism lives'?
A. habitat
B. adaptation
C. niche
D. aestivation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is habitat.
Question 445 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, niche refers to
A. the community and its physical environment
B. period of inactivity during cold conditions
C. the role of an organism in its habitat
D. features that help an organism survive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Niche means the role of an organism in its habitat.
Question 446 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'the role of an organism in its habitat'?
A. hibernation
B. niche
C. aestivation
D. erosion
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 113Explanation: The correct term is niche.
Question 447 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, community refers to
A. wearing away of top soil
B. all the populations living in an area
C. decayed organic matter in soil
D. gradual replacement of one community by another
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Community means all the populations living in an area.
Question 448 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'all the populations living in an area'?
A. community
B. ecosystem
C. adaptation
D. succession
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is community.
Question 449 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, ecosystem refers to
A. the community and its physical environment
B. period of inactivity during cold conditions
C. interconnected food chains
D. features that help an organism survive
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ecosystem means the community and its physical environment.
Question 450 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'the community and its physical environment'?
A. ecosystem
B. community
C. erosion
D. aestivation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is ecosystem.
Question 451 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, food web refers to
A. interconnected food chains
B. the role of an organism in its habitat
C. wearing away of top soil
D. features that help an organism survive
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Food web means interconnected food chains.
Question 452 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'interconnected food chains'?
A. aestivation
B. adaptation
C. food web
D. humus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct term is food web.
Question 453 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, humus refers to
A. the place where an organism lives
B. all the populations living in an area
C. gradual replacement of one community by another
D. decayed organic matter in soil
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Humus means decayed organic matter in soil.
Question 454 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'decayed organic matter in soil'?
A. humus
B. ecosystem
C. community
D. food web
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is humus.
Question 455 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, erosion refers to
A. interconnected food chains
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 114B. wearing away of top soil
C. the place where an organism lives
D. all the populations living in an area
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Erosion means wearing away of top soil.
Question 456 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'wearing away of top soil'?
A. erosion
B. niche
C. conservation
D. humus
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is erosion.
Question 457 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, succession refers to
A. interconnected food chains
B. features that help an organism survive
C. the community and its physical environment
D. gradual replacement of one community by another
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Succession means gradual replacement of one community by another.
Question 458 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'gradual replacement of one community by another'?
A. humus
B. erosion
C. adaptation
D. succession
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct term is succession.
Question 459 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, conservation refers to
A. wise use and protection of resources
B. gradual replacement of one community by another
C. period of inactivity during cold conditions
D. the community and its physical environment
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Conservation means wise use and protection of resources.
Question 460 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'wise use and protection of resources'?
A. conservation
B. adaptation
C. ecosystem
D. hibernation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is conservation.
Question 461 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, adaptation refers to
A. period of inactivity during hot dry conditions
B. features that help an organism survive
C. the role of an organism in its habitat
D. all the populations living in an area
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Adaptation means features that help an organism survive.
Question 462 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'features that help an organism survive'?
A. adaptation
B. erosion
C. aestivation
D. habitat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct term is adaptation.
Question 463 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, hibernation refers to
A. interconnected food chains
B. period of inactivity during hot dry conditions
C. all the populations living in an area
D. period of inactivity during cold conditions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hibernation means period of inactivity during cold conditions.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 115Question 464 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'period of inactivity during cold conditions'?
A. community
B. hibernation
C. aestivation
D. habitat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct term is hibernation.
Question 465 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: In ecology, aestivation refers to
A. period of inactivity during hot dry conditions
B. period of inactivity during cold conditions
C. features that help an organism survive
D. interconnected food chains
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Aestivation means period of inactivity during hot dry conditions.
Question 466 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: Which ecological term means 'period of inactivity during hot dry conditions'?
A. conservation
B. humus
C. aestivation
D. niche
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct term is aestivation.
Question 467 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Low
Question: The disease malaria is commonly transmitted through
A. air droplets
B. contaminated food or water
C. female Anopheles mosquito
D. cell membrane
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Malaria is commonly spread through female Anopheles mosquito.
Question 468 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of malaria is
A. Plasmodium
B. Salmonella typhi
C. virus
D. cell membrane
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium.
Likelihood: Low
Question 469 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Low
Question: The disease sleeping sickness is commonly transmitted through
A. direct contact
B. tsetse fly
C. air droplets
D. freshwater snails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sleeping sickness is commonly spread through tsetse fly.
Question 470 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of sleeping sickness is
A. virus
B. Trypanosoma
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma.
Likelihood: Low
Question 471 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The disease cholera is commonly transmitted through
A. air droplets
B. contaminated food or water
C. female Anopheles mosquito
D. contaminated water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cholera is commonly spread through contaminated water.
Likelihood: Low
Question 472 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of cholera is
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. virus
C. Plasmodium
Likelihood: Low
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 116D. fungus
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
Question 473 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The disease tuberculosis is commonly transmitted through
A. female Anopheles mosquito
B. air droplets
C. contaminated water
D. contaminated food or water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tuberculosis is commonly spread through air droplets.
Likelihood: Low
Question 474 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of tuberculosis is
A. Trypanosoma
B. blood fluke
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Likelihood: Low
Question 475 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The disease measles is commonly transmitted through
A. air droplets
B. Aedes mosquito
C. freshwater snails
D. direct contact
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Measles is commonly spread through air droplets.
Likelihood: Low
Question 476 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of measles is
A. blood fluke
B. virus
C. Plasmodium
D. Trypanosoma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Measles is caused by virus.
Likelihood: Low
Question 477 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The disease ringworm is commonly transmitted through
A. contaminated water
B. air droplets
C. direct contact
D. female Anopheles mosquito
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ringworm is commonly spread through direct contact.
Likelihood: Low
Question 478 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of ringworm is
A. Trypanosoma
B. fungus
C. virus
D. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ringworm is caused by fungus.
Likelihood: Low
Question 479 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Low
Question: The disease typhoid is commonly transmitted through
A. contaminated food or water
B. contaminated water
C. air droplets
D. Aedes mosquito
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Typhoid is commonly spread through contaminated food or water.
Question 480 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of typhoid is
A. blood fluke
B. Salmonella typhi
C. fungus
D. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi.
Likelihood: Low
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 117Question 481 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Low
Question: The disease schistosomiasis is commonly transmitted through
A. contaminated food or water
B. direct contact
C. female Anopheles mosquito
D. freshwater snails
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Schistosomiasis is commonly spread through freshwater snails.
Question 482 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of schistosomiasis is
A. virus
B. fungus
C. Trypanosoma
D. blood fluke
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Schistosomiasis is caused by blood fluke.
Likelihood: Low
Question 483 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The disease yellow fever is commonly transmitted through
A. Aedes mosquito
B. air droplets
C. tsetse fly
D. contaminated food or water
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Yellow fever is commonly spread through Aedes mosquito.
Likelihood: Low
Question 484 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of yellow fever is
A. blood fluke
B. Salmonella typhi
C. virus
D. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Yellow fever is caused by virus.
Likelihood: Low
Question 485 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Likelihood: Low
Question: The disease polio is commonly transmitted through
A. contaminated water
B. contaminated food or water
C. air droplets
D. direct contact
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Polio is commonly spread through contaminated food or water.
Question 486 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: The causative agent of polio is
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. blood fluke
C. Salmonella typhi
D. virus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Polio is caused by virus.
Likelihood: Low
Question 487 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Low
Question: The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration to high concentration using energy is
A. active transport
B. osmosis
C. diffusion
D. translocation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Active transport moves substances against a concentration gradient.
Question 488 Topic: Cell Structure and Organization Likelihood: Low
Question: Chromosomes are best seen under the microscope during
A. plasmolysis
B. cell division
C. photosynthesis
D. interphase only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: They condense and become visible during cell division.
Question 489 Topic: Nutrition Likelihood: Low
Question: The mechanical breakdown of food in the mouth is mainly performed by the
A. teeth
B. salivary gland
C. epiglottis
D. tongue only
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 118Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Teeth cut and grind food into smaller pieces.
Question 490 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: The blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs is the
A. pulmonary artery
B. aorta
C. pulmonary vein
D. hepatic vein
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The pulmonary artery carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
Question 491 Topic: Transport and Respiration Likelihood: Low
Question: The main waste gas removed by the lungs is
A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is excreted during exhalation.
Question 492 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Low
Question: The urinary bladder temporarily stores
A. plasma
B. urine
C. bile
D. lymph
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Urine is stored in the bladder before excretion.
Question 493 Topic: Excretion, Support and Movement Likelihood: Low
Question: The strong fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones is the
A. cartilage
B. marrow
C. ligament
D. tendon
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tendons connect muscles to bones.
Question 494 Topic: Reproduction and Growth Likelihood: Low
Question: Seeds are dispersed by wind when they are
A. sticky and hard
B. light and possess wings or hairs
C. large and fleshy
D. heavy and rough
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Such structures help them be carried by air.
Question 495 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The part of the eye that refracts most incoming light is the
A. cornea
B. optic nerve
C. iris
D. retina
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The cornea provides much of the eye's focusing power.
Question 496 Topic: Coordination and Control Likelihood: Low
Question: The opening in the center of the iris is the
A. pupil
B. sclera
C. lens
D. retina
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The pupil is the adjustable opening that admits light.
Question 497 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: The presence of cactus spines is an adaptation for
A. attracting pollinators only
B. reducing water loss and protection
C. increasing transpiration
D. absorbing oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spines reduce surface area and help defend the plant.
Question 498 Topic: Heredity, Variation and Applied Biology Question: A person with blood group AB can donate blood to
Likelihood: Low
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 119A. A only
B. AB only
C. O only
D. B only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: AB red cells carry both A and B antigens and are safest for AB recipients.
Question 499 Topic: Variety of Organisms Likelihood: Low
Question: The body of a snail is protected by a
A. cell wall
B. exoskeleton of chitin
C. feather coat
D. shell
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Snails are molluscs with shells.
Question 500 Topic: Ecology and Evolution Likelihood: Low
Question: An organism that feeds on dead animals is called a
A. producer
B. scavenger
C. parasite
D. autotroph
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Scavengers feed on dead animal matter.
Chemistry
500 original multiple-choice questions with answers, explanations, topic labels, and likelihood ratings.
Section 1: Most repeated topics
- Atomic structure and periodicity
- Bonding and structure
- Stoichiometry and mole concept
- Acids, bases, and salts
- Redox and electrolysis
- Organic chemistry
- Gas laws and kinetic theory
- Qualitative analysis and solubility
Section 2: This year's likely focus areas
High priority: Mole calculations, Bonding, Acids, bases, and salts, Organic chemistry, Electrolysis
Medium priority: Gas laws, Equilibrium and rates, Metals and non-metals, Qualitative analysis
Low priority: Industrial details, Less frequent oxidation-number traps
Section 3: 500 original questions
Questions are ordered broadly from higher-yield areas to lower-frequency areas within the subject.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 120Question 1 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: Which method is most suitable for separating sand from salt in a mixture?
A. sublimation
B. distillation only
C. chromatography
D. dissolve, filter and evaporate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Salt dissolves in water while sand does not; filtration and evaporation complete the separation.
Question 2 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: Fractional distillation is used to separate
A. insoluble solids from liquids
B. miscible liquids with different boiling points
C. coloured substances on paper
D. magnetic materials from non-magnetic materials
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fractional distillation separates liquids with close boiling points.
Question 3 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: Chromatography is especially useful for separating
A. oil from water by density alone
B. coloured components of a mixture
C. metals from ores
D. gravel from sand
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chromatography separates components that travel at different rates.
Question 4 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: A pure substance is expected to have
A. no definite composition
B. different boiling points at different times
C. a fixed melting point
D. two colours
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pure substances have fixed melting and boiling points.
Question 5 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: The process of converting a solid directly to vapour is
A. filtration
B. evaporation
C. distillation
D. sublimation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sublimation is the direct change from solid to vapour.
Question 6 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: The method used to obtain crystals of copper(II) sulfate from its solution is
A. sedimentation
B. decantation
C. filtration only
D. crystallization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Crystallization forms solid crystals from a solution.
Question 7 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: Decantation is best used when separating
A. magnetic solids
B. a liquid from a settled solid
C. a dissolved salt from water
D. two gases
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Decantation pours off a liquid after sedimentation.
Question 8 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: A separating funnel is used mainly to separate
A. miscible liquids
B. soluble solids
C. immiscible liquids
D. coloured inks
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Immiscible liquids form layers that can be run off.
Question 9 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: An example of a homogeneous mixture is
A. air
B. granite
C. oil and water
D. sand and iron filings
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 121Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Air is a uniform mixture of gases.
Question 10 Topic: Separation Techniques Likelihood: High
Question: A suspension can be separated by
A. electrolysis
B. combustion
C. filtration
D. freezing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The suspended solid can be trapped by filter paper.
Question 11 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The atomic number of an element is the number of
A. neutrons
B. protons and neutrons
C. protons
D. electrons and neutrons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Atomic number equals the number of protons.
Question 12 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Isotopes of an element have the same number of
A. shells filled
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. nucleons
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Isotopes differ in neutron number but not proton number.
Question 13 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The mass number of an atom is the sum of its
A. protons and electrons
B. electrons and valence electrons
C. neutrons and shells
D. protons and neutrons
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mass number counts nucleons.
Question 14 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Electrons occupy regions around the nucleus called
A. shells
B. ions
C. isotopes
D. bonds
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrons are arranged in shells or energy levels.
Question 15 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: An atom becomes a cation when it
A. gains neutrons
B. gains electrons
C. loses electrons
D. loses protons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Loss of electrons gives a positive charge.
Question 16 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: An atom becomes an anion when it
A. gains protons
B. loses electrons
C. gains electrons
D. loses neutrons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gain of electrons gives a negative charge.
Question 17 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The maximum number of electrons in the first shell is
A. 8
B. 2
C. 32
D. 18
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The K-shell holds a maximum of two electrons.
Question 18 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: The valency of sodium is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 122A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sodium loses one electron to form Na+.
Question 19 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,7 belongs to
A. sodium
B. chlorine
C. argon
D. magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorine has 17 electrons arranged as 2,8,7.
Question 20 Topic: Atomic Structure Likelihood: High
Question: Elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same number of
A. isotopes
B. valence electrons
C. shells
D. neutrons
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Group properties are determined by outer electrons.
Question 21 Topic: Periodic Table Likelihood: High
Question: Elements in Period 3 of the periodic table have
A. three occupied shells
B. atomic number 3
C. three valence electrons
D. three isotopes each
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Period number equals the number of electron shells.
Question 22 Topic: Periodic Table Likelihood: High
Question: Group I elements are known as
A. transition metals
B. alkali metals
C. halogens
D. noble gases
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Group I elements are alkali metals.
Question 23 Topic: Periodic Table Likelihood: High
Question: Group VII elements are known as
A. alkali metals
B. halogens
C. alkaline earth metals
D. noble gases
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Group VII/17 elements are halogens.
Question 24 Topic: Periodic Table Likelihood: High
Question: The most reactive non-metal in the periodic table is
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. fluorine
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Fluorine is the most reactive halogen.
Question 25 Topic: Periodic Table Likelihood: High
Question: The noble gases are generally unreactive because they
A. contain no electrons
B. have one shell each
C. have stable outer electron shells
D. are always liquids
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Their outer shells are complete.
Question 26 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: Ionic bonding involves
A. sharing of protons
B. transfer of electrons
C. overlapping of nuclei
D. sharing of electrons
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 123Explanation: Ionic bonding is formed by electron transfer.
Question 27 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: A covalent bond is formed by
A. sharing electrons
B. gaining neutrons
C. sharing ions
D. losing protons
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Covalent bonding involves shared electron pairs.
Question 28 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: Sodium chloride is held together by
A. hydrogen bonds
B. metallic attraction only
C. shared electron pairs only
D. electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NaCl is an ionic compound.
Question 29 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: A property of ionic compounds is that they
A. always dissolve in petrol
B. have low melting points
C. conduct electricity when molten
D. are soft and waxy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mobile ions in the molten state conduct electricity.
Question 30 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: A property of covalent substances such as methane is that they
A. conduct electricity strongly in solid state
B. contain mobile ions
C. have relatively low melting and boiling points
D. are all soluble in water
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Simple molecular covalent substances often have low boiling points.
Question 31 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: The bond present in hydrogen molecules is
A. double covalent bond
B. ionic bond
C. metallic bond
D. single covalent bond
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Two hydrogen atoms share one pair of electrons.
Question 32 Topic: Chemical Bonding Likelihood: High
Question: The substance with metallic bonding among the following is
A. carbon dioxide
B. copper
C. water
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Metals exhibit metallic bonding.
Question 33 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The mole is defined as the amount of substance containing
A. one kilogram of atoms
B. one dozen particles
C. Avogadro's number of particles
D. one proton
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: One mole contains 6.02 x 10^23 particles.
Question 34 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The relative molecular mass of H2O is
A. 20
B. 16
C. 18
D. 17
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Water has mass 2(1) + 16 = 18.
Question 35 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The relative molecular mass of CO2 is
A. 48
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 124B. 28
C. 32
D. 44
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CO2 has mass 12 + 2(16) = 44.
Question 36 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: One mole of oxygen molecules contains
A. 6.02 x 10^23 atoms
B. 3.01 x 10^23 molecules
C. 1 molecule
D. 6.02 x 10^23 molecules
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: One mole contains Avogadro's number of particles.
Question 37 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: At room temperature and pressure, one mole of a gas occupies about
A. 12 dm3
B. 24 dm3
C. 1 dm3
D. 48 dm3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The molar volume of a gas at r.t.p. is about 24 dm3.
Question 38 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The number of moles in 36 g of water is
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = 36/18 = 2.
Question 39 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The number of moles in 22 g of carbon dioxide is
A. 0.5
B. 0.25
C. 2.0
D. 1.0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = 22/44 = 0.5.
Question 40 Topic: Chemical Combination and Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The mass of 0.5 mole of sodium chloride, NaCl, is
A. 29.25 g
B. 117 g
C. 14.6 g
D. 58.5 g
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g/mol, so 0.5 mol weighs 29.25 g.
Question 41 Topic: Kinetic Theory and Gas Laws Likelihood: High
Question: According to Boyle's law, pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant
A. mass
B. temperature
C. density
D. colour
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Boyle's law holds when temperature is constant.
Question 42 Topic: Kinetic Theory and Gas Laws Likelihood: High
Question: Charles' law states that volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature at constant
A. pressure
B. density
C. mole number
D. mass
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Charles' law is V proportional to T at constant pressure.
Question 43 Topic: Kinetic Theory and Gas Laws Question: A gas exerts pressure because its molecules
A. dissolve the container
B. have massless particles
C. collide with the walls of the container
D. remain stationary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Molecular collisions cause gas pressure.
Likelihood: High
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 125Question 44 Topic: Kinetic Theory and Gas Laws Likelihood: High
Question: Increasing the temperature of a gas generally causes the gas molecules to
A. move faster
B. stop colliding
C. lose all energy
D. become heavier
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Temperature increases average kinetic energy.
Question 45 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: An acid turns blue litmus paper
A. yellow
B. red
C. white
D. green
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Acids turn blue litmus red.
Question 46 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A base turns red litmus paper
A. green
B. blue
C. white
D. yellow
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bases turn red litmus blue.
Question 47 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is
A. 1
B. 0
C. 14
D. 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A neutral solution has pH 7.
Question 48 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce
A. ammonia and water
B. salt and water
C. hydrogen and chlorine
D. oxygen and water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This is a neutralization reaction.
Question 49 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A salt formed from a strong acid and a weak base usually has a
A. acidic solution
B. neutral solution
C. alkaline solution
D. radioactive solution
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Such salts hydrolyze to give acidic solutions.
Question 50 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: The indicator phenolphthalein is
A. pink in acid and colourless in alkali
B. red in acid and blue in alkali
C. colourless in acid and pink in alkali
D. blue in acid and colourless in alkali
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Phenolphthalein turns pink in alkaline solution.
Question 51 Topic: Solubility Likelihood: High
Question: A solution that contains as much solute as it can hold at a given temperature is
A. saturated
B. dilute only
C. neutral
D. unsaturated
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A saturated solution cannot dissolve more solute at that temperature.
Question 52 Topic: Solubility Likelihood: High
Question: The solubility of most solid solutes in water generally
A. decreases with temperature always
B. increases with temperature
C. becomes zero
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 126D. remains constant always
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Many solids dissolve more as temperature rises.
Question 53 Topic: Solubility Likelihood: High
Question: When crystals form from a hot saturated solution on cooling, the process is
A. electrolysis
B. polymerization
C. crystallization
D. neutralization
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cooling reduces solubility and crystals form.
Question 54 Topic: Redox Likelihood: High
Question: Oxidation can be defined as
A. gain of electrons
B. gain of hydrogen
C. loss of electrons
D. loss of oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In electron terms, oxidation is loss of electrons.
Question 55 Topic: Redox Likelihood: High
Question: Reduction can be defined as
A. gain of electrons
B. loss of electrons
C. loss of hydrogen
D. gain of oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Reduction is gain of electrons.
Question 56 Topic: Redox Likelihood: High
Question: An oxidizing agent is a substance that
A. causes reduction by donating oxygen
B. always contains oxygen
C. causes oxidation by accepting electrons
D. loses electrons only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An oxidizing agent is itself reduced.
Question 57 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: The positive electrode in electrolysis is the
A. cathode
B. salt bridge
C. electrolyte
D. anode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The anode is the positive electrode in an electrolytic cell.
Question 58 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: The negative electrode in electrolysis is the
A. electrolyte
B. wire gauze
C. anode
D. cathode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The cathode is the negative electrode.
Question 59 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis, cations move to the
A. cathode
B. air
C. anode
D. salt bridge
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Positive ions are attracted to the cathode.
Question 60 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of acidified water, hydrogen is produced at the
A. electrolyte surface
B. anode
C. wire
D. cathode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the cathode.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 127Question 61 Topic: Rates of Reaction and Equilibrium Question: A catalyst speeds up a reaction by
A. changing the equilibrium constant
B. increasing the mass of products
C. lowering the activation energy
D. being used up permanently
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Catalysts provide an easier reaction pathway.
Likelihood: High
Question 62 Topic: Rates of Reaction and Equilibrium Question: An increase in temperature usually
A. reduces particle energy
B. stops all collisions
C. increases the rate of reaction
D. prevents mixing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Higher temperature increases effective collisions.
Likelihood: High
Question 63 Topic: Rates of Reaction and Equilibrium Question: Dynamic equilibrium is attained when
A. the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
B. temperature is zero
C. the reactants are completely used up
D. the catalyst is removed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: At equilibrium, reaction rates are equal.
Likelihood: High
Question 64 Topic: Air, Water and Hydrogen Likelihood: High
Question: The most abundant gas in air is
A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. argon
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nitrogen makes up about 78% of air.
Question 65 Topic: Air, Water and Hydrogen Likelihood: High
Question: The gas responsible for the greenhouse effect among the following is
A. helium
B. carbon dioxide
C. argon
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Carbon dioxide traps heat in the atmosphere.
Question 66 Topic: Air, Water and Hydrogen Likelihood: High
Question: Hydrogen is commonly prepared in the laboratory by reacting dilute acid with
A. silver
B. zinc
C. graphite
D. gold
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zinc reacts with dilute acids to produce hydrogen.
Question 67 Topic: Air, Water and Hydrogen Likelihood: High
Question: The test for hydrogen gas is that it
A. rekindles a glowing splint
B. turns limewater milky
C. turns blue litmus red
D. burns with a pop sound
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen ignites with a squeaky pop.
Question 68 Topic: Non-Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: The allotropes of carbon include
A. iron and steel
B. sodium and potassium
C. diamond and graphite
D. chlorine and bromine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Diamond and graphite are different forms of carbon.
Question 69 Topic: Non-Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Diamond is hard because
A. it is a liquid
B. it contains metallic bonds
C. it has a giant covalent structure
D. it is made of ions
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 128Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Strong covalent bonds extend throughout the lattice.
Question 70 Topic: Non-Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Graphite conducts electricity because it
A. contains sodium ions
B. melts easily
C. is an ionic compound
D. has delocalized electrons
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Free electrons move through graphite.
Question 71 Topic: Non-Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Sulfur is used in the manufacture of
A. sulfuric acid
B. ammonia only
C. sodium chloride
D. calcium oxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sulfur is a major raw material in sulfuric acid production.
Question 72 Topic: Non-Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Chlorine is commonly used to
A. soften iron
B. sweeten food
C. color plastics
D. sterilize water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chlorine kills harmful microorganisms in water.
Question 73 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Rusting of iron requires
A. nitrogen and oxygen
B. water only
C. oxygen and water
D. carbon dioxide only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moisture and oxygen are both needed for rusting.
Question 74 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Galvanization prevents rusting by coating iron with
A. copper
B. lead
C. zinc
D. silver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Zinc protects iron from corrosion.
Question 75 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Bauxite is the chief ore of
A. zinc
B. aluminium
C. copper
D. iron
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Aluminium is extracted from bauxite.
Question 76 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Limestone is mainly calcium
A. oxide
B. nitrate
C. chloride
D. carbonate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Limestone is calcium carbonate.
Question 77 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: High
Question: Quicklime is calcium
A. carbonate
B. hydroxide
C. chloride
D. oxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Heating limestone forms calcium oxide.
Question 78 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The simplest hydrocarbon is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 129A. methane
B. ethanoic acid
C. ethene
D. ethanol
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Methane, CH4, is the simplest hydrocarbon.
Question 79 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain
A. triple bonds only
B. single bonds only
C. double bonds only
D. ionic bonds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.
Question 80 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Ethene belongs to the homologous series of
A. alkanes
B. alkanols
C. alkynes
D. alkenes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ethene contains a carbon-carbon double bond.
Question 81 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The functional group of alcohols is
A. -NH2
B. -COOH
C. -CHO
D. -OH
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group.
Question 82 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The functional group of carboxylic acids is
A. -COOH
B. -Cl
C. -OH
D. -CHO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Carboxylic acids contain the carboxyl group.
Question 83 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Ethanoic acid is commonly known as
A. sulfuric acid
B. acetic acid
C. citric acid
D. formic acid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ethanoic acid is acetic acid.
Question 84 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Fermentation of sugar by yeast produces
A. ethanoic acid only
B. ethanol and carbon dioxide
C. methane and oxygen
D. hydrogen and chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Yeast fermentation yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Question 85 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Addition polymerization commonly occurs with
A. salts
B. alkanes
C. alkenes
D. alkanoic acids
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alkenes polymerize by addition across the double bond.
Question 86 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The product of complete combustion of hydrocarbons includes
A. carbon monoxide and hydrogen only
B. ethene and water
C. methane and oxygen
D. carbon dioxide and water
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 130Explanation: Complete combustion produces carbon dioxide and water.
Question 87 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Soap is generally prepared by
A. polymerization of ethene
B. alkaline hydrolysis of fats and oils
C. oxidation of sugars
D. fractional distillation of petrol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This process is called saponification.
Question 88 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: The confirmatory test for hydrogen is that it
A. turns damp red litmus paper blue
B. decolorizes acidified potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII)
C. turns limewater milky
D. burns with a pop sound
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen burns with a pop sound.
Likelihood: High
Question 89 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: The confirmatory test for oxygen is that it
A. rekindles a glowing splint
B. decolorizes acidified potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII)
C. turns limewater milky
D. burns with a pop sound
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen rekindles a glowing splint.
Likelihood: High
Question 90 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: The confirmatory test for carbon dioxide is that it
A. burns with a pop sound
B. bleaches damp litmus paper
C. rekindles a glowing splint
D. turns limewater milky
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky.
Likelihood: High
Question 91 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: The confirmatory test for ammonia is that it
A. bleaches damp litmus paper
B. turns damp red litmus paper blue
C. turns limewater milky
D. burns with a pop sound
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ammonia turns damp red litmus paper blue.
Likelihood: High
Question 92 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: The confirmatory test for chlorine is that it
A. bleaches damp litmus paper
B. rekindles a glowing splint
C. burns with a pop sound
D. turns damp red litmus paper blue
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper.
Likelihood: High
Question 93 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Likelihood: High
Question: The confirmatory test for sulfur dioxide is that it
A. decolorizes acidified potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII)
B. turns limewater milky
C. burns with a pop sound
D. rekindles a glowing splint
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide decolorizes acidified potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII).
Question 94 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sodium chloride is
A. C2H5OH
B. H2SO4
C. NaCl
D. CH3COOH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of sodium chloride is NaCl.
Question 95 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of magnesium oxide is
A. SO3
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 131B. Na2CO3
C. Ca(OH)2
D. MgO
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The formula of magnesium oxide is MgO.
Question 96 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of calcium chloride is
A. CaCl2
B. C2H4
C. CaCO3
D. SO2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula of calcium chloride is CaCl2.
Question 97 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of aluminium oxide is
A. MgO
B. NH3
C. SO3
D. Al2O3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The formula of aluminium oxide is Al2O3.
Question 98 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of carbon dioxide is
A. MgO
B. NaOH
C. CH4
D. CO2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The formula of carbon dioxide is CO2.
Question 99 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sulfur dioxide is
A. NaOH
B. C2H5OH
C. MgO
D. SO2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The formula of sulfur dioxide is SO2.
Question 100 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sulfur trioxide is
A. NH3
B. SO3
C. Ca(OH)2
D. CaCO3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The formula of sulfur trioxide is SO3.
Question 101 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of ammonia is
A. HNO3
B. Al2O3
C. NH3
D. H2SO4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of ammonia is NH3.
Question 102 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of methane is
A. CH4
B. CaCO3
C. CH3COOH
D. NaOH
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula of methane is CH4.
Question 103 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of ethanol is
A. NaOH
B. H2SO4
C. C2H5OH
D. CaCO3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of ethanol is C2H5OH.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 132Question 104 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of ethene is
A. SO3
B. C2H5OH
C. C2H4
D. NH3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of ethene is C2H4.
Question 105 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of ethanoic acid is
A. CaCO3
B. CH3COOH
C. NaOH
D. CO2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The formula of ethanoic acid is CH3COOH.
Question 106 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sodium hydroxide is
A. CaCl2
B. NaOH
C. CuSO4
D. SO3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The formula of sodium hydroxide is NaOH.
Question 107 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of calcium hydroxide is
A. Ca(OH)2
B. C2H4
C. CaCl2
D. MgO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula of calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)2.
Question 108 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of nitric acid is
A. MgO
B. HNO3
C. C2H4
D. Na2CO3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The formula of nitric acid is HNO3.
Question 109 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sulfuric acid is
A. NH3
B. Ca(OH)2
C. H2SO4
D. C2H5OH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of sulfuric acid is H2SO4.
Question 110 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of hydrochloric acid is
A. CH4
B. HCl
C. CaCl2
D. NaOH
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The formula of hydrochloric acid is HCl.
Question 111 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of sodium carbonate is
A. HCl
B. NH3
C. Na2CO3
D. CaCO3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of sodium carbonate is Na2CO3.
Question 112 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of calcium carbonate is
A. CaCO3
B. CH3COOH
C. Na2CO3
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 133D. Ca(OH)2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula of calcium carbonate is CaCO3.
Question 113 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: High
Question: The chemical formula of copper(II) sulfate is
A. HNO3
B. MgO
C. CuSO4
D. CO2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The formula of copper(II) sulfate is CuSO4.
Question 114 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Burning magnesium in air is an example of
A. double decomposition
B. neutralization
C. combination reaction
D. decomposition reaction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Magnesium combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
Question 115 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Heating calcium carbonate to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is a
A. thermal decomposition reaction
B. precipitation reaction
C. neutralization reaction
D. combination reaction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: One compound breaks down on heating.
Question 116 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide is a
A. polymerization reaction
B. displacement reaction
C. electrolysis
D. neutralization reaction
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Acid plus base gives salt and water.
Question 117 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Reaction of zinc with copper(II) sulfate solution is a
A. displacement reaction
B. combustion reaction
C. neutralization reaction
D. esterification reaction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Zinc displaces copper from its salt.
Question 118 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Formation of an insoluble solid when two solutions are mixed is called
A. sublimation
B. dissociation
C. combustion
D. precipitation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A precipitate is an insoluble solid.
Question 119 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Cracking of long-chain hydrocarbons produces
A. salts
B. smaller hydrocarbons
C. only carbon dioxide
D. only water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cracking breaks large molecules into smaller ones.
Question 120 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Hydrogenation of ethene produces
A. ethyne
B. ethanol
C. ethanoic acid
D. ethane
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen adds across the double bond.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 134Question 121 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: The reaction of an acid with a carbonate produces salt, water and
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. ammonia
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acid-carbonate reactions release carbon dioxide.
Question 122 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: Combustion of a hydrocarbon in limited air tends to form
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. sodium chloride
D. nitrogen dioxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Incomplete combustion produces carbon monoxide.
Question 123 Topic: Reactions and Processes Likelihood: High
Question: The sweet-smelling product formed from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid is an
A. alkene
B. soap
C. alkali
D. ester
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Esterification forms an ester and water.
Question 124 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of O2 is
A. 32
B. 30
C. 34
D. 36
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of O2 is 32.
Question 125 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of N2 is
A. 28
B. 26
C. 30
D. 32
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of N2 is 28.
Question 126 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of NH3 is
A. 17
B. 15
C. 21
D. 19
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of NH3 is 17.
Question 127 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of NaOH is
A. 40
B. 44
C. 42
D. 38
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of NaOH is 40.
Question 128 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of CaCO3 is
A. 102
B. 100
C. 98
D. 104
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The molar mass of CaCO3 is 100.
Question 129 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of H2SO4 is
A. 98
B. 102
C. 100
D. 96
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 135Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of H2SO4 is 98.
Question 130 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of HNO3 is
A. 67
B. 65
C. 63
D. 61
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The molar mass of HNO3 is 63.
Question 131 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of Na2CO3 is
A. 108
B. 110
C. 104
D. 106
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The molar mass of Na2CO3 is 106.
Question 132 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of Ca(OH)2 is
A. 74
B. 78
C. 76
D. 72
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of Ca(OH)2 is 74.
Question 133 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of CH4 is
A. 18
B. 14
C. 16
D. 20
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The molar mass of CH4 is 16.
Question 134 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of C2H6 is
A. 28
B. 30
C. 34
D. 32
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The molar mass of C2H6 is 30.
Question 135 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of C2H4 is
A. 26
B. 32
C. 30
D. 28
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The molar mass of C2H4 is 28.
Question 136 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of C2H5OH is
A. 50
B. 46
C. 44
D. 48
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The molar mass of C2H5OH is 46.
Question 137 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of CuSO4 is
A. 160
B. 164
C. 158
D. 162
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of CuSO4 is 160.
Question 138 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of MgO is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 136A. 42
B. 38
C. 44
D. 40
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The molar mass of MgO is 40.
Question 139 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of CO is
A. 32
B. 28
C. 26
D. 30
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The molar mass of CO is 28.
Question 140 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of SO2 is
A. 66
B. 68
C. 64
D. 62
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The molar mass of SO2 is 64.
Question 141 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of SO3 is
A. 80
B. 78
C. 84
D. 82
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The molar mass of SO3 is 80.
Question 142 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of HCl is
A. 34.5
B. 38.5
C. 36.5
D. 40.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The molar mass of HCl is 36.5.
Question 143 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: The molar mass of NaCl is
A. 60.5
B. 56.5
C. 58.5
D. 62.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5.
Question 144 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 9 g of water?
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 1
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 9/18 = 0.5.
Question 145 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 88 g of carbon dioxide?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 88/44 = 2.
Question 146 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 16 g of oxygen?
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 1.5
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 137Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 16/32 = 0.5.
Question 147 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 20 g of sodium hydroxide?
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 0.25
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 20/40 = 0.5.
Question 148 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 50 g of calcium carbonate?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 50/100 = 0.5.
Question 149 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 73 g of hydrochloric acid?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 73/36.5 = 2.
Question 150 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 34 g of ammonia?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 34/17 = 2.
Question 151 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 8 g of methane?
A. 1
B. 0.25
C. 0.5
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 8/16 = 0.5.
Question 152 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 23 g of ethanol?
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 23/46 = 0.5.
Question 153 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 80 g of magnesium oxide?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 80/40 = 2.
Question 154 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 117 g of sodium chloride?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 117/58.5 = 2.
Question 155 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 31.5 g of nitric acid?
A. 0.5
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 138B. 1.5
C. 1
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 31.5/63 = 0.5.
Question 156 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 49 g of sulfuric acid?
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 0.25
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 49/98 = 0.5.
Question 157 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 80 g of copper(II) sulfate?
A. 0.25
B. 1.5
C. 0.5
D. 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 80/160 = 0.5.
Question 158 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: High
Question: How many moles are present in 32 g of sulfur dioxide?
A. 1
B. 0.25
C. 1.5
D. 0.5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = mass / molar mass = 32/64 = 0.5.
Question 159 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the product at the cathode is
A. hydrogen
B. sodium
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cathode product is sodium.
Question 160 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the product at the anode is
A. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
B. oxygen
C. bromine
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The anode product is chlorine.
Question 161 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of acidified water, the product at the cathode is
A. lead
B. hydrogen
C. copper
D. sodium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cathode product is hydrogen.
Question 162 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of acidified water, the product at the anode is
A. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
B. oxygen
C. chlorine
D. bromine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The anode product is oxygen.
Question 163 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of copper(II) sulfate using copper electrodes, the product at the cathode is
A. lead
B. copper
C. sodium
D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cathode product is copper.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 139Question 164 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of copper(II) sulfate using copper electrodes, the product at the anode is
A. chlorine
B. oxygen
C. bromine
D. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The anode product is oxygen not discharged due to active electrode.
Question 165 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution, the product at the cathode is
A. hydrogen
B. sodium
C. copper
D. lead
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The cathode product is hydrogen.
Question 166 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution, the product at the anode is
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The anode product is chlorine.
Question 167 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid, the product at the cathode is
A. lead
B. hydrogen
C. copper
D. sodium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The cathode product is hydrogen.
Question 168 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid, the product at the anode is
A. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
B. chlorine
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The anode product is oxygen.
Question 169 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, the product at the cathode is
A. copper
B. hydrogen
C. sodium
D. lead
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The cathode product is lead.
Question 170 Topic: Electrolysis Likelihood: High
Question: During electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, the product at the anode is
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. bromine
D. oxygen not discharged due to active electrode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The anode product is bromine.
Question 171 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of CH4 is
A. methanoic acid
B. methane
C. methanol
D. methene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: CH4 is methane.
Question 172 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of C2H6 is
A. ethane
B. ethene
C. ethanol
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 140D. ethyne
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: C2H6 is ethane.
Question 173 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of C3H8 is
A. propene
B. propanol
C. propyne
D. propane
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: C3H8 is propane.
Question 174 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of C2H4 is
A. ethyne
B. ethane
C. ethanol
D. ethene
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: C2H4 is ethene.
Question 175 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of C2H2 is
A. ethene
B. ethane
C. ethyne
D. ethanol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C2H2 is ethyne.
Question 176 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of C2H5OH is
A. ethanoic acid
B. ethanol
C. ethene
D. ethanal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C2H5OH is ethanol.
Question 177 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The IUPAC name of CH3COOH is
A. ethanol
B. methanoic acid
C. ethanal
D. ethanoic acid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CH3COOH is ethanoic acid.
Question 178 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Compounds in the same homologous series have
A. different valencies always
B. the same molecular mass
C. the same functional group
D. identical formulas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Members of a homologous series share a functional group.
Question 179 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Successive members of a homologous series differ by
A. H2
B. CH2
C. O
D. CO
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Each member differs by a methylene group.
Question 180 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Alkenes decolorize bromine water because they are
A. unsaturated
B. basic
C. ionic
D. neutral only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The C=C bond reacts with bromine.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 141Question 181 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: A hydrocarbon containing a triple bond belongs to the
A. alkane series
B. alkyne series
C. alkene series
D. alkanol series
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Alkynes contain carbon-carbon triple bonds.
Question 182 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Saponification is the process of making
A. ester
B. alkene
C. soap
D. ethene
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Saponification is alkaline hydrolysis of fats.
Question 183 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: A sweet-smelling ester can be formed from ethanol and
A. methane
B. ethene
C. ethanoic acid
D. sodium chloride
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alcohol + carboxylic acid forms an ester.
Question 184 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Crude oil is separated into fractions mainly by
A. fractional distillation
B. electrolysis
C. crystallization
D. neutralization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Different fractions boil at different temperatures.
Question 185 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: Petrol is obtained as a fraction of
A. brine
B. air
C. crude oil
D. sea water
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Petrol is one fraction from refining petroleum.
Question 186 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The black smoke from incomplete combustion is due to
A. carbon particles
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Incomplete combustion forms soot.
Question 187 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The gas that turns limewater milky in hydrocarbon combustion is
A. hydrogen
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CO2 is formed in complete combustion.
Question 188 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The main constituent of natural gas is
A. butane only
B. ethanol
C. methane
D. ethene
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Natural gas consists mainly of methane.
Question 189 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The process by which large hydrocarbon molecules are broken into smaller ones is
A. polymerization
B. cracking
C. hydration
D. saponification
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 142Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cracking breaks long chains into shorter ones.
Question 190 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: High
Question: The product formed when ethene reacts with steam is
A. ethanol
B. ethyne
C. ethane
D. ethanoic acid
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hydration of ethene gives ethanol.
Question 191 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A substance that produces H+ ions in water is
A. a salt
B. a base
C. an acid
D. an alloy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acids ionize in water to give hydrogen ions.
Question 192 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A substance that produces OH- ions in water is
A. an oxide only
B. an acid
C. an alkali
D. a non-metal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alkalis are soluble bases that yield hydroxide ions.
Question 193 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: The reaction of an acid with a metal usually produces
A. salt and hydrogen gas
B. metal oxide and water
C. salt and ammonia
D. salt and oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acid-metal reactions evolve hydrogen.
Question 194 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A basic oxide among the following is
A. nitrogen dioxide
B. carbon dioxide
C. calcium oxide
D. sulfur dioxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Metal oxides such as CaO are basic.
Question 195 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: An acidic oxide among the following is
A. calcium oxide
B. sodium oxide
C. sulfur dioxide
D. magnesium oxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Most non-metal oxides are acidic.
Question 196 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A neutral oxide among the following is
A. sulfur trioxide
B. calcium oxide
C. carbon monoxide
D. sodium oxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CO is commonly considered a neutral oxide.
Question 197 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: The pH of a strongly acidic solution is likely to be
A. 1
B. 9
C. 7
D. 13
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Strong acids have very low pH.
Question 198 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: A solution with pH 9 is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 143A. acidic
B. alkaline
C. radioactive
D. neutral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: pH greater than 7 indicates alkalinity.
Question 199 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: During neutralization, the H+ from the acid combines with
A. Cl- from the acid
B. OH- from the base
C. CO3 2- from the base
D. Na+ from the base
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Water is formed from H+ and OH-.
Question 200 Topic: Acids, Bases and Salts Likelihood: High
Question: The substance commonly used to dry ammonia gas is
A. water
B. quicklime
C. anhydrous calcium chloride
D. concentrated sulfuric acid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ammonia reacts with many acidic drying agents; quicklime is suitable.
Question 201 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: 2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O. The mole ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is
A. 2:3
B. 1:1
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The coefficients give the mole ratio.
Question 202 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: N2 + 3H2 -> 2NH3. The mole ratio of nitrogen to hydrogen is
A. 1:3
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The equation shows 1 mole of N2 reacts with 3 moles of H2.
Question 203 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: 2Na + 2H2O -> 2NaOH + H2. The number of moles of sodium needed to produce 1 mole of hydrogen is
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The equation shows 2 moles Na produce 1 mole H2.
Question 204 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: CaCO3 -> CaO + CO2. One mole of calcium carbonate produces
A. two moles of carbon dioxide
B. one mole of carbon dioxide
C. half a mole of carbon dioxide
D. three moles of carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Coefficients are 1:1.
Question 205 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: If 2 moles of magnesium burn completely in oxygen, the number of moles of magnesium oxide formed is
A. 2
B. 0.5
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 2Mg + O2 -> 2MgO.
Question 206 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: The relative formula mass of CaCO3 is
A. 110
B. 100
C. 98
D. 84
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 144Explanation: 40 + 12 + 3(16) = 100.
Question 207 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: The number of moles in 64 g of oxygen gas, O2, is
A. 4
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = 64/32 = 2.
Question 208 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: The mass of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
A. 66 g
B. 88 g
C. 44 g
D. 132 g
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mass = 3 x 44 = 132 g.
Question 209 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the volume occupied by 2 moles of a gas is
A. 48 dm3
B. 24 dm3
C. 12 dm3
D. 72 dm3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 2 x 24 dm3 = 48 dm3.
Question 210 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: The number of moles of molecules in 48 dm3 of chlorine gas at r.t.p. is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0.5
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = 48/24 = 2.
Question 211 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The species that is oxidized in the reaction Zn + Cu2+ -> Zn2+ + Cu is
A. copper
B. zinc
C. copper ion
D. water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zinc loses electrons to form Zn2+.
Question 212 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The species that is reduced in the reaction Zn + Cu2+ -> Zn2+ + Cu is
A. zinc
B. oxygen
C. zinc ion
D. copper(II) ion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cu2+ gains electrons.
Question 213 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: An oxidizing agent is itself
A. oxidized
B. evaporated
C. reduced
D. neutralized
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An oxidizing agent accepts electrons and is reduced.
Question 214 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: In electroplating, the object to be plated is usually the
A. salt bridge
B. cathode
C. anode
D. electrolyte
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Metal ions are reduced onto the cathode.
Question 215 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: During electrorefining of copper, the impure copper is made the
A. electrolyte
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 145B. cathode
C. salt bridge
D. anode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The impure metal dissolves from the anode.
Question 216 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Oxidation of ethanol can produce
A. ethyne
B. methane
C. ethanoic acid
D. ethene
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Oxidation changes ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Question 217 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The reagent commonly used to test for unsaturation in organic compounds is
A. starch solution
B. litmus solution
C. limewater
D. bromine water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bromine water is decolorized by unsaturated compounds.
Question 218 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The brown gas evolved from some nitrates on heating is
A. nitrogen dioxide
B. sulfur dioxide
C. chlorine
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Many metal nitrates decompose to release NO2.
Question 219 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The gas evolved when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is
A. hydrogen
B. chlorine
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2.
Question 220 Topic: Redox and Electrolysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The gas evolved when marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid is
A. hydrogen
B. chlorine
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium carbonate reacts with acids to release CO2.
Question 221 Topic: Energy Changes Likelihood: Medium
Question: A reaction that releases heat is described as
A. exothermic
B. reversible
C. endothermic
D. neutral
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Exothermic reactions give out heat.
Question 222 Topic: Energy Changes Likelihood: Medium
Question: A reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings is
A. endothermic
B. exothermic
C. catalytic
D. oxidative only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Endothermic reactions take in heat.
Question 223 Topic: Water Likelihood: Medium
Question: Hard water is water that
A. contains no dissolved salts
B. does not lather easily with soap
C. has a pH of 7 only
D. is dangerous to drink
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dissolved calcium and magnesium salts cause hardness.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 146Question 224 Topic: Water Likelihood: Medium
Question: Temporary hardness of water can be removed by
A. adding sand
B. boiling
C. cooling
D. filtration only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Boiling decomposes bicarbonates causing temporary hardness.
Question 225 Topic: Water Likelihood: Medium
Question: The gas evolved when steam is passed over red-hot iron is
A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. chlorine
D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Iron and steam react to form iron oxide and hydrogen.
Question 226 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for sodium is
A. Na
B. Ag
C. Cl
D. C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The symbol for sodium is Na.
Question 227 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Na is
A. sodium
B. iron
C. sulfur
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Na represents sodium.
Question 228 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of sodium in simple compounds is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sodium commonly shows valency 1 in simple compounds.
Question 229 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for potassium is
A. Cu
B. K
C. N
D. Ca
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for potassium is K.
Question 230 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol K is
A. silver
B. potassium
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: K represents potassium.
Question 231 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of potassium in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Potassium commonly shows valency 1 in simple compounds.
Question 232 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for calcium is
A. Cu
B. O
C. Zn
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 147D. Ca
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The symbol for calcium is Ca.
Question 233 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Ca is
A. calcium
B. lead
C. oxygen
D. sulfur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ca represents calcium.
Question 234 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of calcium in simple compounds is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Calcium commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 235 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for magnesium is
A. Al
B. Cl
C. Mg
D. Pb
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The symbol for magnesium is Mg.
Question 236 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Mg is
A. oxygen
B. iron
C. magnesium
D. lead
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mg represents magnesium.
Question 237 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of magnesium in simple compounds is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Magnesium commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 238 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for aluminium is
A. S
B. Al
C. Fe
D. O
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for aluminium is Al.
Question 239 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Al is
A. silver
B. carbon
C. aluminium
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Al represents aluminium.
Question 240 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of aluminium in simple compounds is
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Aluminium commonly shows valency 3 in simple compounds.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 148Question 241 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for chlorine is
A. Pb
B. Cl
C. Cu
D. N
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for chlorine is Cl.
Question 242 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Cl is
A. zinc
B. chlorine
C. sulfur
D. carbon
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cl represents chlorine.
Question 243 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of chlorine in simple compounds is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chlorine commonly shows valency 1 in simple compounds.
Question 244 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for oxygen is
A. O
B. Al
C. Pb
D. Fe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The symbol for oxygen is O.
Question 245 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol O is
A. sulfur
B. oxygen
C. magnesium
D. aluminium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: O represents oxygen.
Question 246 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of oxygen in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 247 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for nitrogen is
A. O
B. N
C. Cl
D. Pb
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for nitrogen is N.
Question 248 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol N is
A. calcium
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. iron
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: N represents nitrogen.
Question 249 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of nitrogen in simple compounds is
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 149Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nitrogen commonly shows valency 3 in simple compounds.
Question 250 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for sulfur is
A. S
B. Ag
C. Na
D. N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The symbol for sulfur is S.
Question 251 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol S is
A. sulfur
B. copper
C. calcium
D. lead
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: S represents sulfur.
Question 252 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of sulfur in simple compounds is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sulfur commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 253 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for carbon is
A. Na
B. C
C. Mg
D. Al
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for carbon is C.
Question 254 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol C is
A. carbon
B. chlorine
C. nitrogen
D. zinc
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: C represents carbon.
Question 255 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of carbon in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carbon commonly shows valency 4 in simple compounds.
Question 256 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for iron is
A. Cu
B. Fe
C. Pb
D. Cl
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The symbol for iron is Fe.
Question 257 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Fe is
A. iron
B. silver
C. chlorine
D. aluminium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fe represents iron.
Question 258 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of iron in simple compounds is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 150A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Iron commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 259 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for copper is
A. Cu
B. Ca
C. Fe
D. N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The symbol for copper is Cu.
Question 260 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Cu is
A. oxygen
B. iron
C. copper
D. carbon
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cu represents copper.
Question 261 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of copper in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Copper commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 262 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for zinc is
A. Zn
B. Al
C. Cu
D. C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The symbol for zinc is Zn.
Question 263 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Zn is
A. lead
B. zinc
C. silver
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zn represents zinc.
Question 264 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of zinc in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Zinc commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 265 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for silver is
A. Cu
B. H
C. Pb
D. Ag
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The symbol for silver is Ag.
Question 266 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Ag is
A. potassium
B. lead
C. oxygen
D. silver
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 151Explanation: Ag represents silver.
Question 267 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of silver in simple compounds is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Silver commonly shows valency 1 in simple compounds.
Question 268 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for lead is
A. K
B. O
C. Pb
D. Fe
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The symbol for lead is Pb.
Question 269 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol Pb is
A. nitrogen
B. aluminium
C. lead
D. copper
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pb represents lead.
Question 270 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of lead in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lead commonly shows valency 2 in simple compounds.
Question 271 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The chemical symbol for hydrogen is
A. Ag
B. S
C. H
D. Al
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The symbol for hydrogen is H.
Question 272 Topic: Atomic Structure and Symbolism Likelihood: Medium
Question: The element represented by the symbol H is
A. hydrogen
B. carbon
C. lead
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: H represents hydrogen.
Question 273 Topic: Valency and Formulae Likelihood: Medium
Question: The common valency of hydrogen in simple compounds is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen commonly shows valency 1 in simple compounds.
Question 274 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain chloride ions may be tested using
A. aluminium foil and sodium hydroxide
B. HCl and ammonia
C. dilute acid
D. warm with sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chloride ions are commonly identified with HCl and ammonia.
Question 275 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for chloride ions is
A. white precipitate
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 152B. sulfur dioxide evolved
C. effervescence with carbon dioxide
D. ammonia evolved
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Testing for chloride gives the observation: white precipitate.
Question 276 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which ion is indicated by the observation 'white precipitate' in the appropriate test?
A. chloride
B. sulfate
C. sulfite
D. ammonium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The result points to chloride ions.
Question 277 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain sulfate ions may be tested using
A. aluminium foil and sodium hydroxide
B. dilute acid
C. barium chloride solution
D. HCl and ammonia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sulfate ions are commonly identified with barium chloride solution.
Question 278 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for sulfate ions is
A. ammonia gas evolved
B. sulfur dioxide evolved
C. white precipitate
D. ammonia evolved
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testing for sulfate gives the observation: white precipitate.
Question 279 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain carbonate ions may be tested using
A. dilute acid
B. barium chloride solution
C. aluminium foil and sodium hydroxide
D. warm with sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Carbonate ions are commonly identified with dilute acid.
Question 280 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for carbonate ions is
A. white precipitate
B. oxygen
C. effervescence with carbon dioxide
D. ammonia evolved
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testing for carbonate gives the observation: effervescence with carbon dioxide.
Question 281 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which ion is indicated by the observation 'effervescence with carbon dioxide' in the appropriate test?
A. carbonate
B. nitrate
C. chloride
D. ammonium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The result points to carbonate ions.
Question 282 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain ammonium ions may be tested using
A. HCl and ammonia
B. dilute acid
C. warm with sodium hydroxide
D. barium chloride solution
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ammonium ions are commonly identified with warm with sodium hydroxide.
Question 283 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for ammonium ions is
A. sulfur dioxide evolved
B. white precipitate
C. ammonia gas evolved
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testing for ammonium gives the observation: ammonia gas evolved.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 153Question 284 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which ion is indicated by the observation 'ammonia gas evolved' in the appropriate test?
A. sulfate
B. sulfite
C. ammonium
D. chloride
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The result points to ammonium ions.
Question 285 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain nitrate ions may be tested using
A. aluminium foil and sodium hydroxide
B. dilute acid
C. barium chloride solution
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nitrate ions are commonly identified with aluminium foil and sodium hydroxide.
Question 286 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for nitrate ions is
A. ammonia gas evolved
B. white precipitate
C. oxygen
D. ammonia evolved
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Testing for nitrate gives the observation: ammonia evolved.
Question 287 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which ion is indicated by the observation 'ammonia evolved' in the appropriate test?
A. carbonate
B. ammonium
C. nitrate
D. chloride
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The result points to nitrate ions.
Question 288 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: A solution suspected to contain sulfite ions may be tested using
A. warm with sodium hydroxide
B. HCl and ammonia
C. barium chloride solution
D. dilute acid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sulfite ions are commonly identified with dilute acid.
Question 289 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: The observation expected when testing for sulfite ions is
A. ammonia evolved
B. ammonia gas evolved
C. white precipitate
D. sulfur dioxide evolved
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Testing for sulfite gives the observation: sulfur dioxide evolved.
Question 290 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which ion is indicated by the observation 'sulfur dioxide evolved' in the appropriate test?
A. sulfite
B. chloride
C. sulfate
D. ammonium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The result points to sulfite ions.
Question 291 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: A gas that burns with a pop sound is
A. sulfur dioxide
B. ammonia
C. hydrogen
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The gas is hydrogen.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 292 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: A gas that rekindles a glowing splint is
A. ammonia
B. oxygen
C. chlorine
Likelihood: Medium
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 154D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The gas is oxygen.
Question 293 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: A gas that turns limewater milky is
A. sulfur dioxide
B. oxygen
C. chlorine
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The gas is carbon dioxide.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 294 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: A gas that turns damp red litmus paper blue is
A. chlorine
B. ammonia
C. carbon dioxide
D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The gas is ammonia.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 295 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Question: A gas that bleaches damp litmus paper is
A. oxygen
B. chlorine
C. ammonia
D. hydrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The gas is chlorine.
Likelihood: Medium
Question 296 Topic: Gas Laws and Laboratory Tests Likelihood: Medium
Question: A gas that decolorizes acidified potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII) is
A. sulfur dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. ammonia
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The gas is sulfur dioxide.
Question 297 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula NaCl is
A. ethanol
B. sodium chloride
C. sulfuric acid
D. ethene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: NaCl is sodium chloride.
Question 298 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula MgO is
A. ethanoic acid
B. methane
C. magnesium oxide
D. aluminium oxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MgO is magnesium oxide.
Question 299 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CaCl2 is
A. carbon dioxide
B. copper(II) sulfate
C. sodium carbonate
D. calcium chloride
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CaCl2 is calcium chloride.
Question 300 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula Al2O3 is
A. aluminium oxide
B. carbon dioxide
C. magnesium oxide
D. calcium hydroxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Al2O3 is aluminium oxide.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 155Question 301 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CO2 is
A. sulfuric acid
B. calcium chloride
C. hydrochloric acid
D. carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CO2 is carbon dioxide.
Question 302 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula SO2 is
A. ethene
B. calcium chloride
C. ammonia
D. sulfur dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: SO2 is sulfur dioxide.
Question 303 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula SO3 is
A. nitric acid
B. copper(II) sulfate
C. sulfur dioxide
D. sulfur trioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: SO3 is sulfur trioxide.
Question 304 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula NH3 is
A. ammonia
B. ethanoic acid
C. sodium carbonate
D. sulfur dioxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: NH3 is ammonia.
Question 305 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CH4 is
A. methane
B. ethanoic acid
C. ammonia
D. sulfur trioxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: CH4 is methane.
Question 306 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula C2H5OH is
A. sodium chloride
B. ethanol
C. sodium carbonate
D. ethene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C2H5OH is ethanol.
Question 307 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula C2H4 is
A. sodium carbonate
B. calcium carbonate
C. carbon dioxide
D. ethene
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: C2H4 is ethene.
Question 308 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CH3COOH is
A. ethanol
B. ammonia
C. methane
D. ethanoic acid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CH3COOH is ethanoic acid.
Question 309 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula NaOH is
A. ethanol
B. hydrochloric acid
C. aluminium oxide
D. sodium hydroxide
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 156Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NaOH is sodium hydroxide.
Question 310 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula Ca(OH)2 is
A. ammonia
B. aluminium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. sodium chloride
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ca(OH)2 is calcium hydroxide.
Question 311 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula HNO3 is
A. carbon dioxide
B. nitric acid
C. magnesium oxide
D. sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HNO3 is nitric acid.
Question 312 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula H2SO4 is
A. hydrochloric acid
B. ethene
C. calcium chloride
D. sulfuric acid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: H2SO4 is sulfuric acid.
Question 313 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula HCl is
A. sulfuric acid
B. hydrochloric acid
C. carbon dioxide
D. sulfur trioxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HCl is hydrochloric acid.
Question 314 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula Na2CO3 is
A. calcium chloride
B. calcium hydroxide
C. ethene
D. sodium carbonate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Na2CO3 is sodium carbonate.
Question 315 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CaCO3 is
A. calcium carbonate
B. sodium chloride
C. sulfur dioxide
D. ethanol
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: CaCO3 is calcium carbonate.
Question 316 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Medium
Question: The compound with formula CuSO4 is
A. carbon dioxide
B. calcium chloride
C. aluminium oxide
D. copper(II) sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CuSO4 is copper(II) sulfate.
Question 317 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of sodium carbonate is
A. galvanizing iron
B. drying agent and manufacture of cement
C. making cooking utensils and aircraft parts
D. softening hard water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sodium carbonate is used for softening hard water.
Question 318 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for softening hard water?
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 157A. zinc
B. sodium carbonate
C. calcium oxide
D. ethene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sodium carbonate is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 319 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of calcium oxide is
A. drying agent and manufacture of cement
B. manufacture of cement
C. reinforcing car tyres
D. test for unsaturation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Calcium oxide is used for drying agent and manufacture of cement.
Question 320 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for drying agent and manufacture of cement?
A. sodium carbonate
B. oxygen
C. ammonia
D. calcium oxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium oxide is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 321 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of chlorine is
A. manufacture of cement
B. drying agent and manufacture of cement
C. sterilizing drinking water
D. making cooking utensils and aircraft parts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Chlorine is used for sterilizing drinking water.
Question 322 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for sterilizing drinking water?
A. chlorine
B. sodium carbonate
C. oxygen
D. graphite
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Chlorine is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 323 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of graphite is
A. softening hard water
B. cutting glass
C. making electrodes
D. making cooking utensils and aircraft parts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Graphite is used for making electrodes.
Question 324 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for making electrodes?
A. carbon black
B. graphite
C. diamond
D. zinc
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Graphite is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 325 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of diamond is
A. manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries
B. cutting glass
C. manufacture of cement
D. reinforcing car tyres
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Diamond is used for cutting glass.
Question 326 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for cutting glass?
A. diamond
B. carbon black
C. calcium oxide
D. silicon dioxide
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 158Explanation: Diamond is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 327 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of ammonia is
A. manufacture of fertilizers
B. welding and medical use
C. softening hard water
D. manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ammonia is used for manufacture of fertilizers.
Question 328 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for manufacture of fertilizers?
A. silicon dioxide
B. nitrogen
C. ammonia
D. aluminium
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ammonia is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 329 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of sulfuric acid is
A. softening hard water
B. electrical wiring
C. manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries
D. welding and medical use
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sulfuric acid is used for manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries.
Question 330 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries?
A. oxygen
B. sulfuric acid
C. diamond
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sulfuric acid is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 331 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of limestone is
A. manufacture of cement
B. making glass
C. hydrogenation of vegetable oils
D. cutting glass
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Limestone is used for manufacture of cement.
Question 332 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for manufacture of cement?
A. diamond
B. limestone
C. bromine water
D. ethanol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Limestone is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 333 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of silicon dioxide is
A. test for unsaturation
B. making glass
C. manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries
D. test for carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Silicon dioxide is used for making glass.
Question 334 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for making glass?
A. hydrogen
B. ammonia
C. silicon dioxide
D. diamond
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Silicon dioxide is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 335 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of copper is
A. cutting glass
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 159B. galvanizing iron
C. manufacture of fertilizers
D. electrical wiring
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Copper is used for electrical wiring.
Question 336 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for electrical wiring?
A. hydrogen
B. ethanol
C. copper
D. aluminium
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Copper is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 337 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of aluminium is
A. manufacture of fertilizers
B. making electrodes
C. cutting glass
D. making cooking utensils and aircraft parts
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils and aircraft parts.
Question 338 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for making cooking utensils and aircraft parts?
A. bromine water
B. aluminium
C. limestone
D. limewater
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Aluminium is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 339 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of zinc is
A. galvanizing iron
B. manufacture of polythene
C. sterilizing drinking water
D. manufacture of ammonia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Zinc is used for galvanizing iron.
Question 340 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for galvanizing iron?
A. ammonia
B. zinc
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zinc is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 341 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of nitrogen is
A. manufacture of fertilizers and car batteries
B. manufacture of cement
C. manufacture of fertilizers
D. manufacture of ammonia
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Nitrogen is used for manufacture of ammonia.
Question 342 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for manufacture of ammonia?
A. limestone
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. silicon dioxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nitrogen is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 343 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of oxygen is
A. manufacture of polythene
B. welding and medical use
C. manufacture of fertilizers
D. solvent and fuel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Oxygen is used for welding and medical use.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 160Question 344 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for welding and medical use?
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. calcium oxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 345 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of hydrogen is
A. manufacture of ammonia
B. reinforcing car tyres
C. test for unsaturation
D. hydrogenation of vegetable oils
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrogen is used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
Question 346 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
A. hydrogen
B. calcium oxide
C. limewater
D. ethanol
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hydrogen is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 347 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of ethanol is
A. test for unsaturation
B. drying agent and manufacture of cement
C. manufacture of ammonia
D. solvent and fuel
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ethanol is used for solvent and fuel.
Question 348 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for solvent and fuel?
A. copper
B. ethanol
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ethanol is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 349 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of ethene is
A. manufacture of polythene
B. electrical wiring
C. drying agent and manufacture of cement
D. welding and medical use
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ethene is used for manufacture of polythene.
Question 350 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for manufacture of polythene?
A. graphite
B. ethene
C. carbon black
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ethene is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 351 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of carbon black is
A. manufacture of ammonia
B. welding and medical use
C. reinforcing car tyres
D. making cooking utensils and aircraft parts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Carbon black is used for reinforcing car tyres.
Question 352 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for reinforcing car tyres?
A. limewater
B. sulfuric acid
C. hydrogen
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 161D. carbon black
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carbon black is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 353 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of bromine water is
A. sterilizing drinking water
B. manufacture of fertilizers
C. making electrodes
D. test for unsaturation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bromine water is used for test for unsaturation.
Question 354 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for test for unsaturation?
A. zinc
B. bromine water
C. chlorine
D. ethene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bromine water is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 355 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: An important use of limewater is
A. reinforcing car tyres
B. manufacture of ammonia
C. test for unsaturation
D. test for carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Limewater is used for test for carbon dioxide.
Question 356 Topic: Uses of Chemicals Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which substance is commonly used for test for carbon dioxide?
A. ammonia
B. diamond
C. limewater
D. bromine water
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Limewater is commonly used for this purpose.
Question 357 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Across a period, atomic radius generally
A. decreases
B. remains constant
C. increases
D. becomes zero
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Increasing nuclear charge pulls electrons closer across a period.
Question 358 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Down Group I, reactivity generally
A. remains constant
B. increases
C. decreases
D. first decreases then increases
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Outer electrons are lost more easily down the group.
Question 359 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Down Group VII, reactivity generally
A. increases
B. remains constant
C. becomes zero
D. decreases
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Halogens gain electrons less readily down the group.
Question 360 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Metals are generally
A. non-conductive
B. electronegative
C. chemically inert
D. electropositive
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Metals tend to lose electrons.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 162Question 361 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Non-metals are generally
A. lustrous conductors
B. electropositive
C. malleable
D. electronegative
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Non-metals tend to attract electrons.
Question 362 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: A transition metal is often characterized by
A. low density only
B. variable oxidation states
C. being unreactive to oxygen
D. forming only colourless ions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Transition metals commonly show variable oxidation states.
Question 363 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: The valence electrons of Group II elements are
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Group II elements have two valence electrons.
Question 364 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: An element with electronic configuration 2,8,8 is
A. argon
B. potassium
C. chlorine
D. calcium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Argon has 18 electrons: 2,8,8.
Question 365 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: An element with configuration 2,8,1 belongs to
A. Group II
B. Group VII
C. Group I
D. Group 0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: One outer electron places it in Group I.
Question 366 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: An element with configuration 2,8,2 belongs to
A. Group II
B. Group VII
C. Group VI
D. Group I
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Two outer electrons place it in Group II.
Question 367 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: The periodic law states that properties of elements are periodic functions of their
A. valencies only
B. neutron numbers
C. atomic numbers
D. mass numbers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Modern periodicity depends on atomic number.
Question 368 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Alkali metals react vigorously with water to produce
A. chlorine gas
B. nitrogen gas
C. alkaline solutions and hydrogen
D. acidic solutions only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The reaction forms metal hydroxides and hydrogen.
Question 369 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colour of bromine at room temperature is
A. green
B. colourless
C. deep blue
D. reddish-brown
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 163Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bromine is a reddish-brown liquid.
Question 370 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Chlorine is a
A. purple gas
B. greenish-yellow gas
C. colourless liquid
D. black solid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorine is a greenish-yellow gas.
Question 371 Topic: Periodic Table and Trends Likelihood: Medium
Question: Iodine is commonly a
A. reddish liquid
B. colourless gas
C. silver metal
D. black solid with purple vapour
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Iodine sublimes to a purple vapour.
Question 372 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 24 dm3 of any gas is
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 24/24 = 1.
Question 373 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 12 dm3 of any gas is
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 12/24 = 0.5.
Question 374 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 48 dm3 of any gas is
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 48/24 = 2.
Question 375 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 72 dm3 of any gas is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 72/24 = 3.
Question 376 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 6 dm3 of any gas is
A. 0.5
B. 1.25
C. 0.125
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 6/24 = 0.25.
Question 377 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 36 dm3 of any gas is
A. 2.5
B. 1.5
C. 0.75
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 36/24 = 1.5.
Question 378 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 60 dm3 of any gas is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 164A. 1.25
B. 2.5
C. 5
D. 3.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 60/24 = 2.5.
Question 379 Topic: Gas Laws and Stoichiometry Likelihood: Medium
Question: At r.t.p., the number of moles in 96 dm3 of any gas is
A. 2
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = volume / 24 dm3 = 96/24 = 4.
Question 380 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing C and H in the mass ratio 12:3 is
A. CO2
B. NaCl
C. Al2O3
D. CH
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives CH.
Question 381 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing C, H and O in the mass ratio 24:4:32 is
A. CaCl2
B. CH2O
C. CO2
D. CH
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives CH2O.
Question 382 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing Na and Cl in the ratio 23:35.5 is
A. MgO
B. NaCl
C. Al2O3
D. CaCl2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives NaCl.
Question 383 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing Mg and O in the ratio 24:16 is
A. CaCl2
B. CH2O
C. MgO
D. NaCl
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives MgO.
Question 384 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing Al and O in the ratio 27:24 is
A. Al2O3
B. KCl
C. H2O
D. CH2O
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives Al2O3.
Question 385 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing Ca and Cl in the ratio 40:71 is
A. Al2O3
B. CaCl2
C. CO2
D. NaCl
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives CaCl2.
Question 386 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing C and O in the ratio 12:32 is
A. CO2
B. NaCl
C. KCl
D. CH2O
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 165Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives CO2.
Question 387 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing N and H in the ratio 14:3 is
A. CH
B. NH3
C. NaCl
D. KCl
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives NH3.
Question 388 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing H and O in the ratio 2:16 is
A. CH
B. CO2
C. CH2O
D. H2O
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives H2O.
Question 389 Topic: Empirical Formula Likelihood: Medium
Question: The empirical formula of a compound containing K and Cl in the ratio 39:35.5 is
A. KCl
B. Al2O3
C. NaCl
D. NH3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms gives KCl.
Question 390 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colour change pattern associated with litmus is
A. different colours at different pH values
B. colourless in acid and pink in alkali
C. red in acid and blue in alkali
D. red in acid and yellow in alkali
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Litmus is red in acid and blue in alkali.
Question 391 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which indicator is described as 'red in acid and blue in alkali'?
A. phenolphthalein
B. litmus
C. methyl orange
D. universal indicator
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The indicator is litmus.
Question 392 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colour change pattern associated with methyl orange is
A. colourless in acid and pink in alkali
B. red in acid and yellow in alkali
C. red in acid and blue in alkali
D. different colours at different pH values
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Methyl orange is red in acid and yellow in alkali.
Question 393 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which indicator is described as 'red in acid and yellow in alkali'?
A. phenolphthalein
B. methyl orange
C. universal indicator
D. litmus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The indicator is methyl orange.
Question 394 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colour change pattern associated with phenolphthalein is
A. colourless in acid and pink in alkali
B. different colours at different pH values
C. red in acid and blue in alkali
D. red in acid and yellow in alkali
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Phenolphthalein is colourless in acid and pink in alkali.
Question 395 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which indicator is described as 'colourless in acid and pink in alkali'?
A. universal indicator
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 166B. phenolphthalein
C. methyl orange
D. litmus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The indicator is phenolphthalein.
Question 396 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: The colour change pattern associated with universal indicator is
A. colourless in acid and pink in alkali
B. red in acid and blue in alkali
C. red in acid and yellow in alkali
D. different colours at different pH values
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Universal indicator is different colours at different pH values.
Question 397 Topic: Indicators and pH Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which indicator is described as 'different colours at different pH values'?
A. litmus
B. universal indicator
C. phenolphthalein
D. methyl orange
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The indicator is universal indicator.
Question 398 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Medium
Question: Sodium chloride can be prepared by
A. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide
B. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
C. neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide
D. passing carbon dioxide through limewater
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sodium chloride is prepared by neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide.
Question 399 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Medium
Question: Which salt is prepared by neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide?
A. calcium carbonate
B. lead(II) chloride
C. sodium chloride
D. ammonium chloride
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The salt produced is sodium chloride.
Question 400 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Medium
Question: Copper(ii) sulfate can be prepared by
A. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
B. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide
C. passing carbon dioxide through limewater
D. neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Copper(ii) sulfate is prepared by reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide.
Question 401 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Which salt is prepared by reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide?
A. ammonium chloride
B. zinc sulfate
C. copper(II) sulfate
D. calcium carbonate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The salt produced is copper(II) sulfate.
Question 402 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Zinc sulfate can be prepared by
A. passing carbon dioxide through limewater
B. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc
C. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
D. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zinc sulfate is prepared by reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc.
Question 403 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Which salt is prepared by reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc?
A. sodium chloride
B. copper(II) sulfate
C. calcium carbonate
D. zinc sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The salt produced is zinc sulfate.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 167Question 404 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Lead(ii) chloride can be prepared by
A. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
B. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc
C. precipitation from solutions containing lead(II) and chloride ions
D. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with copper(II) oxide
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lead(ii) chloride is prepared by precipitation from solutions containing lead(II) and chloride ions.
Question 405 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Which salt is prepared by precipitation from solutions containing lead(II) and chloride ions?
A. lead(II) chloride
B. ammonium chloride
C. zinc sulfate
D. calcium carbonate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The salt produced is lead(II) chloride.
Question 406 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Ammonium chloride can be prepared by
A. passing carbon dioxide through limewater
B. neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide
C. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
D. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ammonium chloride is prepared by reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid.
Question 407 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Which salt is prepared by reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid?
A. zinc sulfate
B. sodium chloride
C. lead(II) chloride
D. ammonium chloride
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The salt produced is ammonium chloride.
Question 408 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Calcium carbonate can be prepared by
A. passing carbon dioxide through limewater
B. reaction of dilute sulfuric acid with zinc
C. reaction of ammonia with hydrochloric acid
D. neutralization of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Calcium carbonate is prepared by passing carbon dioxide through limewater.
Question 409 Topic: Preparation of Salts Likelihood: Low
Question: Which salt is prepared by passing carbon dioxide through limewater?
A. lead(II) chloride
B. calcium carbonate
C. zinc sulfate
D. copper(II) sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The salt produced is calcium carbonate.
Question 410 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: All nitrates are
A. soluble except those of silver and lead
B. insoluble except those of sodium, potassium and ammonium
C. soluble in water
D. soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Soluble in water.
Question 411 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: Most chlorides are
A. soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead
B. soluble except those of silver and lead
C. soluble in water
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Soluble except those of silver and lead.
Question 412 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: Most carbonates are
A. soluble in water
B. soluble except those of silver and lead
C. oxygen
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 168D. insoluble except those of sodium, potassium and ammonium
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Insoluble except those of sodium, potassium and ammonium.
Question 413 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: Most sulfates are
A. soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead
B. soluble in water
C. soluble except those of silver and lead
D. oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead.
Question 414 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: All sodium salts are
A. soluble in water
B. insoluble except those of sodium, potassium and ammonium
C. soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead
D. soluble except those of silver and lead
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Soluble in water.
Question 415 Topic: Solubility Rules Likelihood: Low
Question: All ammonium salts are
A. soluble except those of barium, calcium and lead
B. soluble except those of silver and lead
C. soluble in water
D. insoluble except those of sodium, potassium and ammonium
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Soluble in water.
Question 416 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of sodium in NaCl is
A. -2
B. +1
C. +6
D. +7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The oxidation number is +1.
Question 417 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of oxygen in H2O is
A. +4
B. -2
C. 0
D. +1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The oxidation number is -2.
Question 418 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of hydrogen in HCl is
A. +1
B. -3
C. -2
D. +2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The oxidation number is +1.
Question 419 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of chlorine in HCl is
A. 0
B. +4
C. -1
D. +3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The oxidation number is -1.
Question 420 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of sulfur in SO2 is
A. 0
B. -4
C. -3
D. +4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The oxidation number is +4.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 169Question 421 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of sulfur in SO3 is
A. +2
B. +6
C. +3
D. 0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The oxidation number is +6.
Question 422 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of nitrogen in NH3 is
A. +4
B. +3
C. -3
D. +7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The oxidation number is -3.
Question 423 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of carbon in CO2 is
A. +4
B. -4
C. 0
D. +3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The oxidation number is +4.
Question 424 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of carbon in CH4 is
A. -4
B. -2
C. +5
D. -3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The oxidation number is -4.
Question 425 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of chlorine in Cl2 is
A. +6
B. +1
C. +2
D. 0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The oxidation number is 0.
Question 426 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of oxygen in O2 is
A. +4
B. 0
C. +6
D. -1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The oxidation number is 0.
Question 427 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of iron in Fe2O3 is
A. +1
B. +5
C. -4
D. +3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The oxidation number is +3.
Question 428 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of copper in CuO is
A. +5
B. +3
C. -3
D. +2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The oxidation number is +2.
Question 429 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4 is
A. +1
B. 0
C. +7
D. -1
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 170Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The oxidation number is +7.
Question 430 Topic: Oxidation Numbers Likelihood: Low
Question: The oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is
A. -4
B. -3
C. +5
D. +6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The oxidation number is +6.
Question 431 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by
A. filtration
B. neutralization
C. sublimation
D. electrolysis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Aluminium extraction uses electrolysis.
Question 432 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace by
A. electrolysis
B. oxidation with oxygen
C. distillation
D. reduction with carbon monoxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carbon monoxide reduces iron ore.
Question 433 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: An ore is a mineral from which a metal can be
A. electrolyzed only
B. profitably extracted
C. washed away
D. completely ignored
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An ore must be economically useful.
Question 434 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: The main reducing agent in the blast furnace is
A. oxygen
B. silicon dioxide
C. nitrogen
D. carbon monoxide
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CO reduces iron(III) oxide.
Question 435 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: The impurity removed in the blast furnace as slag is mainly
A. silicon dioxide
B. calcium oxide
C. iron
D. carbon monoxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Silica reacts with lime to form slag.
Question 436 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: The flux added in the blast furnace is
A. gypsum
B. coke
C. bauxite
D. limestone
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide, which removes impurities.
Question 437 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: An alloy is
A. a mixture of a metal with other elements
B. an ionic solution
C. a pure metal
D. a gaseous compound
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Alloys improve metallic properties.
Question 438 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Brass is an alloy of copper and
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 171A. aluminium
B. tin
C. zinc
D. iron
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Brass is mainly copper and zinc.
Question 439 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Bronze is an alloy of copper and
A. silver
B. zinc
C. tin
D. lead
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bronze is copper and tin.
Question 440 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Stainless steel contains iron, chromium and
A. zinc
B. nickel
C. sodium
D. lead
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nickel and chromium improve corrosion resistance.
Question 441 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Painting iron prevents rusting mainly by
A. forming graphite
B. excluding air and moisture
C. increasing hardness only
D. adding oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rusting needs oxygen and water.
Question 442 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Sacrificial protection of iron can be achieved using
A. glass only
B. a less reactive metal such as silver
C. a more reactive metal such as zinc
D. distilled water
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The more reactive metal corrodes first.
Question 443 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: An amphoteric oxide among the following is
A. aluminium oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. magnesium oxide
D. sodium oxide
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and bases.
Question 444 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: The metal that is liquid at room temperature is
A. mercury
B. zinc
C. iron
D. sodium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mercury is a liquid metal at room temperature.
Question 445 Topic: Metals and Extraction Likelihood: Low
Question: Copper is used for electrical wiring because it
A. is the lightest metal
B. is highly reactive with water
C. is colourless
D. conducts electricity well
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Copper is a good electrical conductor.
Question 446 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 1.0 dm3 of a 0.1 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 0.6
B. 0.05
C. 0.2
D. 0.1
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 172Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.1 x 1.0 = 0.1.
Question 447 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 2.0 dm3 of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 2
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.5 x 2.0 = 1.
Question 448 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 0.25 dm3 of a 1.0 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 0.75
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.125
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 1.0 x 0.25 = 0.25.
Question 449 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 0.5 dm3 of a 2.0 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 2.0 x 0.5 = 1.
Question 450 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 4.0 dm3 of a 0.25 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.25 x 4.0 = 1.
Question 451 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 5.0 dm3 of a 0.2 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 0.5
D. 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.2 x 5.0 = 1.
Question 452 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 2.0 dm3 of a 0.05 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 0.2
B. 0.05
C. 0.6
D. 0.1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.05 x 2.0 = 0.1.
Question 453 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 2.0 dm3 of a 1.5 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 6
B. 3.5
C. 1.5
D. 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 1.5 x 2.0 = 3.
Question 454 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 2.5 dm3 of a 0.4 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.4 x 2.5 = 1.
Question 455 Topic: Stoichiometry Likelihood: Low
Question: How many moles of solute are present in 4.0 dm3 of a 0.75 mol dm-3 solution?
A. 1.5
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 173B. 3
C. 6
D. 3.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moles = concentration x volume = 0.75 x 4.0 = 3.
Question 456 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of potassium nitrate is
A. K2Cr2O7
B. NaHCO3
C. MgCl2
D. KNO3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Potassium nitrate has the formula KNO3.
Question 457 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by KNO3 is
A. calcium oxide
B. potassium nitrate
C. potassium permanganate
D. ammonium sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: KNO3 stands for potassium nitrate.
Question 458 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of ammonium sulfate is
A. KMnO4
B. K2Cr2O7
C. (NH4)2SO4
D. MgCl2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ammonium sulfate has the formula (NH4)2SO4.
Question 459 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by (NH4)2SO4 is
A. potassium nitrate
B. lead(II) nitrate
C. potassium permanganate
D. ammonium sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: (NH4)2SO4 stands for ammonium sulfate.
Question 460 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of sodium nitrate is
A. NaHCO3
B. Na2SO4
C. (NH4)2SO4
D. NaNO3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sodium nitrate has the formula NaNO3.
Question 461 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by NaNO3 is
A. sodium sulfate
B. ammonium nitrate
C. sodium nitrate
D. sodium hydrogen carbonate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NaNO3 stands for sodium nitrate.
Question 462 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of potassium hydroxide is
A. AgNO3
B. KOH
C. NH4OH
D. K2Cr2O7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Potassium hydroxide has the formula KOH.
Question 463 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by KOH is
A. sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. potassium hydroxide
C. calcium sulfate
D. potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: KOH stands for potassium hydroxide.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 174Question 464 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of magnesium chloride is
A. KNO3
B. MgCl2
C. NaHCO3
D. NH4NO3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnesium chloride has the formula MgCl2.
Question 465 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by MgCl2 is
A. lead(II) nitrate
B. ammonium sulfate
C. magnesium chloride
D. sodium nitrate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MgCl2 stands for magnesium chloride.
Question 466 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of lead(II) nitrate is
A. CaO
B. Pb(NO3)2
C. NaNO3
D. CaSO4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lead(ii) nitrate has the formula Pb(NO3)2.
Question 467 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by Pb(NO3)2 is
A. sodium nitrate
B. ammonium sulfate
C. lead(II) nitrate
D. potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pb(NO3)2 stands for lead(II) nitrate.
Question 468 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of silver nitrate is
A. CaO
B. (NH4)2SO4
C. KNO3
D. AgNO3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Silver nitrate has the formula AgNO3.
Question 469 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by AgNO3 is
A. silver nitrate
B. sodium hydrogen carbonate
C. potassium dichromate
D. potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: AgNO3 stands for silver nitrate.
Question 470 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of ammonium hydroxide is
A. NH4OH
B. KOH
C. NaNO3
D. K2Cr2O7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ammonium hydroxide has the formula NH4OH.
Question 471 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by NH4OH is
A. silver nitrate
B. calcium oxide
C. ammonium hydroxide
D. calcium sulfate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NH4OH stands for ammonium hydroxide.
Question 472 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of calcium oxide is
A. NaHCO3
B. CaO
C. NaNO3
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 175D. K2Cr2O7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Calcium oxide has the formula CaO.
Question 473 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by CaO is
A. magnesium chloride
B. calcium oxide
C. potassium permanganate
D. ammonium nitrate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: CaO stands for calcium oxide.
Question 474 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of calcium sulfate is
A. CaO
B. NH4NO3
C. KOH
D. CaSO4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium sulfate has the formula CaSO4.
Question 475 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by CaSO4 is
A. lead(II) nitrate
B. calcium sulfate
C. calcium oxide
D. sodium hydrogen carbonate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: CaSO4 stands for calcium sulfate.
Question 476 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of sodium hydrogen carbonate is
A. KNO3
B. MgCl2
C. KOH
D. NaHCO3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sodium hydrogen carbonate has the formula NaHCO3.
Question 477 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by NaHCO3 is
A. sodium nitrate
B. ammonium hydroxide
C. ammonium nitrate
D. sodium hydrogen carbonate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NaHCO3 stands for sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Question 478 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of potassium permanganate is
A. KMnO4
B. AgNO3
C. MgCl2
D. KOH
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Potassium permanganate has the formula KMnO4.
Question 479 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by KMnO4 is
A. potassium nitrate
B. potassium dichromate
C. ammonium sulfate
D. potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: KMnO4 stands for potassium permanganate.
Question 480 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of potassium dichromate is
A. NaNO3
B. K2Cr2O7
C. NH4NO3
D. KNO3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Potassium dichromate has the formula K2Cr2O7.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 176Question 481 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by K2Cr2O7 is
A. potassium dichromate
B. ammonium sulfate
C. potassium hydroxide
D. potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: K2Cr2O7 stands for potassium dichromate.
Question 482 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of ammonium nitrate is
A. AgNO3
B. KMnO4
C. NH4NO3
D. KOH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ammonium nitrate has the formula NH4NO3.
Question 483 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by NH4NO3 is
A. ammonium nitrate
B. ammonium sulfate
C. potassium hydroxide
D. lead(II) nitrate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: NH4NO3 stands for ammonium nitrate.
Question 484 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of sodium sulfate is
A. KOH
B. AgNO3
C. Na2SO4
D. NH4NO3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sodium sulfate has the formula Na2SO4.
Question 485 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The compound represented by Na2SO4 is
A. calcium sulfate
B. ammonium hydroxide
C. sodium sulfate
D. potassium nitrate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Na2SO4 stands for sodium sulfate.
Question 486 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Air pollution by sulfur dioxide can lead to
A. acid rain
B. ozone formation only
C. hard water
D. photosynthesis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acids.
Question 487 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: The process by which sewage is treated by microorganisms is called
A. hydrogenation
B. neutralization
C. electrolysis
D. biological treatment
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Microorganisms break down organic waste.
Question 488 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Chlorination of water is done mainly to
A. increase hardness
B. kill microorganisms
C. remove mud only
D. add oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorine disinfects water.
Question 489 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Distilled water differs from rain water because distilled water
A. contains more suspended particles
B. is always alkaline
C. is a mixture of salts
D. contains fewer dissolved impurities
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 177Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distillation removes many dissolved substances.
Question 490 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: The white fur produced when hard water is boiled and evaporated is mainly due to
A. ammonium chloride
B. sodium chloride
C. potassium nitrate
D. calcium salts
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hard water contains calcium and magnesium salts.
Question 491 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: A reducing sugar can be identified using
A. universal indicator
B. iodine solution
C. litmus paper
D. Benedict's solution
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reducing sugars give a brick-red precipitate with Benedict's solution.
Question 492 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Iodine solution is used to test for
A. acid
B. starch
C. protein
D. fat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Iodine turns blue-black with starch.
Question 493 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: The gas obtained at the anode during electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid is
A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. chlorine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Water is oxidized to oxygen at the anode.
Question 494 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Ammonia is manufactured industrially by the
A. Contact process
B. Hall-Heroult process
C. Solvay process
D. Haber process
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Haber process synthesizes ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen.
Question 495 Topic: Industrial and Environmental Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: Sulfuric acid is manufactured industrially by the
A. electrolysis of brine
B. Contact process
C. Solvay process
D. Haber process
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Contact process yields sulfuric acid.
Question 496 Topic: Organic Chemistry Likelihood: Low
Question: The homologous series of alcohols is also called
A. alkynes
B. alkanes
C. alkenes
D. alkanols
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Alcohols belong to the alkanol series.
Question 497 Topic: Metals and Their Compounds Likelihood: Low
Question: The blue colour of copper(II) sulfate crystals is due to
A. sulfur
B. water of crystallization
C. impurities
D. metallic copper
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrated copper(II) sulfate is blue because of water of crystallization.
Question 498 Topic: Qualitative Analysis Likelihood: Low
Question: A white precipitate that dissolves in excess ammonia is characteristic of
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 178A. silver chloride
B. calcium carbonate
C. barium sulfate
D. lead(II) sulfate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Silver chloride dissolves in excess ammonia solution.
Question 499 Topic: Rates of Reaction and Equilibrium Likelihood: Low
Question: Increasing the surface area of a solid reactant increases reaction rate because it
A. stops mixing
B. exposes more particles for collision
C. reduces particle energy
D. removes the catalyst
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: More exposed surface means more effective collisions.
Question 500 Topic: Formulae and Nomenclature Likelihood: Low
Question: The formula of ammonia is
A. NaH
B. N2H4
C. NO2
D. NH3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ammonia contains one nitrogen atom and three hydrogen atoms.
Physics
500 original multiple-choice questions with answers, explanations, topic labels, and likelihood ratings.
Section 1: Most repeated topics
- Measurements and units
- Motion and equations of motion
- Forces, momentum, and equilibrium
- Work, energy, and power
- Pressure and fluids
- Heat and thermal physics
- Waves, sound, and light
- Current electricity and magnetism
Section 2: This year's likely focus areas
High priority: Motion, Work-energy-power, Electricity, Waves, Light and optics
Medium priority: Thermal physics, Pressure and fluids, Magnetism, Simple machines
Low priority: Nuclear details, Low-frequency electronics items
Section 3: 500 original questions
Questions are ordered broadly from higher-yield areas to lower-frequency areas within the subject.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 179Question 1 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of length is
A. kilogram
B. metre
C. centimetre
D. second
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The metre is the SI base unit of length.
Question 2 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of mass is
A. kilogram
B. gram
C. newton
D. joule
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kilogram is the SI base unit of mass.
Question 3 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of time is
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The second is the SI base unit of time.
Question 4 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: A scalar quantity among the following is
A. displacement
B. velocity
C. force
D. mass
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mass has magnitude only.
Question 5 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: A vector quantity among the following is
A. distance
B. temperature
C. energy
D. acceleration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Acceleration has magnitude and direction.
Question 6 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The instrument used to measure temperature is
A. hydrometer
B. thermometer
C. ammeter
D. barometer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Thermometers measure temperature.
Question 7 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The instrument used to measure electric current is
A. thermometer
B. voltmeter
C. hydrometer
D. ammeter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An ammeter measures current.
Question 8 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The instrument used to measure potential difference is
A. ammeter
B. spring balance
C. galvanometer
D. voltmeter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A voltmeter measures voltage.
Question 9 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: The lower fixed point on the Celsius scale is
A. 32°C
B. 100°C
C. 0°C
D. 273°C
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 180Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 0°C corresponds to the melting point of ice.
Question 10 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: One kilometre is equal to
A. 1 m
B. 10,000 m
C. 100 m
D. 1000 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The prefix kilo- means one thousand.
Question 11 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: Speed is defined as
A. distance travelled per unit time
B. change in velocity per unit time
C. mass times velocity
D. displacement per unit time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Speed is distance divided by time.
Question 12 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: Velocity is defined as
A. change in momentum
B. displacement per unit time
C. distance per unit time
D. force per unit mass
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Velocity is speed in a specified direction.
Question 13 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: Acceleration is defined as
A. distance travelled per unit time
B. force per unit area
C. change in velocity per unit time
D. work done per unit time
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acceleration measures how quickly velocity changes.
Question 14 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: The slope of a distance-time graph represents
A. force
B. acceleration
C. power
D. speed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gradient of distance-time graph gives speed.
Question 15 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: The slope of a velocity-time graph represents
A. acceleration
B. distance
C. speed
D. momentum
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gradient of velocity-time graph gives acceleration.
Question 16 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: The area under a velocity-time graph represents
A. displacement
B. force
C. acceleration
D. speed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Area under the graph gives displacement.
Question 17 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body moving with constant velocity has
A. increasing speed
B. zero acceleration
C. constant force
D. zero displacement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If velocity is constant, acceleration is zero.
Question 18 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: A force can change the
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 181A. mass of a body only
B. temperature only
C. state of motion of a body
D. colour of a body
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Force can start, stop or change motion.
Question 19 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of force is
A. newton
B. pascal
C. watt
D. joule
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Force is measured in newtons.
Question 20 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: According to Newton's first law, a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by
A. heat
B. gravity only
C. an unbalanced force
D. friction only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A resultant force is required to change motion.
Question 21 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: Newton's second law relates force to
A. mass and acceleration
B. pressure and area
C. mass and speed
D. power and time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: F = ma.
Question 22 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: Action and reaction are equal and opposite according to Newton's
A. law of gravitation
B. third law
C. second law
D. first law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This is Newton's third law.
Question 23 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion is called
A. friction
B. pressure
C. inertia
D. momentum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Inertia depends on mass.
Question 24 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force that opposes motion between two surfaces in contact is
A. tension
B. upthrust
C. friction
D. gravity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Friction resists relative motion.
Question 25 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: Work is done when a force causes
A. increase in mass
B. temperature change only
C. change in colour
D. displacement
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Work = force x distance moved in the direction of the force.
Question 26 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of work is
A. joule
B. watt
C. pascal
D. newton
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 182Explanation: Work is measured in joules.
Question 27 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: Power is defined as
A. force x distance
B. energy stored in a body
C. rate of doing work
D. mass x velocity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power is work done per unit time.
Question 28 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of power is
A. pascal
B. joule
C. newton
D. watt
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Power is measured in watts.
Question 29 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is
A. nuclear energy
B. potential energy
C. kinetic energy
D. chemical energy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kinetic energy is energy of motion.
Question 30 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: The energy possessed by a body due to its position is
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. electrical energy
D. light energy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Potential energy depends on position or configuration.
Question 31 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: High
Question: Pressure is defined as
A. work done per unit time
B. force x area
C. force per unit area
D. mass per unit volume
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pressure = force/area.
Question 32 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of pressure is
A. watt
B. pascal
C. joule
D. newton
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure is measured in pascals.
Question 33 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: High
Question: Pressure in a liquid increases with
A. volume only
B. depth
C. colour
D. surface area only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Liquid pressure depends on depth.
Question 34 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: High
Question: A hydraulic press works on
A. Hooke's law
B. Archimedes' principle
C. Ohm's law
D. Pascal's principle
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally.
Question 35 Topic: Liquids at Rest Likelihood: High
Question: A body floats in a liquid when
A. its weight equals the upthrust
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 183B. the liquid exerts no pressure
C. its density is always zero
D. there is no gravity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Floating occurs when upthrust balances weight.
Question 36 Topic: Liquids at Rest Likelihood: High
Question: The upward force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in it is
A. upthrust
B. friction
C. tension
D. weight
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Upthrust is also called buoyant force.
Question 37 Topic: Liquids at Rest Likelihood: High
Question: Archimedes' principle states that upthrust equals
A. the mass of the object
B. the weight of fluid displaced
C. the density of the object
D. the pressure of the fluid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Buoyant force equals the weight of displaced fluid.
Question 38 Topic: Temperature and Thermal Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of temperature is
A. degree Celsius
B. Fahrenheit
C. kelvin
D. joule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The kelvin is the SI unit of temperature.
Question 39 Topic: Temperature and Thermal Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The transfer of heat by direct contact is
A. radiation
B. evaporation
C. convection
D. conduction
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Conduction occurs mainly in solids.
Question 40 Topic: Temperature and Thermal Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The transfer of heat through the bulk movement of fluid is
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. reflection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Convection occurs in liquids and gases.
Question 41 Topic: Temperature and Thermal Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves is
A. convection
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Radiation does not require a medium.
Question 42 Topic: Temperature and Thermal Physics Likelihood: High
Question: Black surfaces are good
A. reflectors only
B. conductors of current
C. absorbers and emitters of heat radiation
D. insulators only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Black dull surfaces absorb and emit radiation well.
Question 43 Topic: Gas Laws Likelihood: High
Question: For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume. This is
A. Hooke's law
B. Boyle's law
C. Ohm's law
D. Charles' law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Boyle's law states P proportional to 1/V at constant temperature.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 184Question 44 Topic: Gas Laws Likelihood: High
Question: The volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure is directly proportional to its
A. mass
B. density
C. pressure
D. absolute temperature
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Charles' law states V proportional to T.
Question 45 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The number of complete oscillations per second is
A. wavelength
B. amplitude
C. period
D. frequency
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Frequency is measured in hertz.
Question 46 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of frequency is
A. hertz
B. second
C. decibel
D. metre
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Frequency is measured in hertz.
Question 47 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The time taken for one complete oscillation is
A. speed
B. amplitude
C. frequency
D. period
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Period is the inverse of frequency.
Question 48 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The maximum displacement from the mean position is
A. frequency
B. wavelength
C. amplitude
D. period
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Amplitude measures the size of an oscillation.
Question 49 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: Sound cannot travel through
A. vacuum
B. steel
C. air
D. water
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sound needs a material medium.
Question 50 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The speed of sound is greatest in
A. vacuum
B. gases
C. liquids
D. solids
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Particles are most closely packed in solids.
Question 51 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The bouncing back of light at a surface is called
A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. refraction
D. dispersion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Reflection is the return of light from a surface.
Question 52 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is
A. dispersion
B. reflection
C. interference
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 185D. refraction
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Refraction occurs due to change in speed.
Question 53 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: White light can be split into colours by a
A. prism
B. lens only
C. plane mirror
D. screen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A prism disperses white light.
Question 54 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The image formed by a plane mirror is
A. virtual
B. diminished only
C. inverted
D. real
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Plane mirrors form virtual images.
Question 55 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: Electric current is the rate of flow of
A. heat
B. mass
C. charge
D. voltage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Current measures flow of electric charge.
Question 56 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The SI unit of electric current is
A. ohm
B. coulomb
C. ampere
D. volt
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Current is measured in amperes.
Question 57 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: Potential difference is measured in
A. volts
B. amperes
C. ohms
D. watts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Voltage is measured in volts.
Question 58 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: Resistance is measured in
A. teslas
B. farads
C. henries
D. ohms
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The ohm is the SI unit of resistance.
Question 59 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: According to Ohm's law, V =
A. R/V
B. I/R
C. V/I
D. IR
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ohm's law states V = IR.
Question 60 Topic: Magnetism Likelihood: High
Question: Like poles of a magnet
A. vibrate
B. repel
C. attract
D. neutralize
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Like poles repel while unlike poles attract.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 186Question 61 Topic: Magnetism Likelihood: High
Question: Unlike poles of a magnet
A. repel
B. attract
C. lose strength
D. do nothing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Opposite poles attract.
Question 62 Topic: Magnetism Likelihood: High
Question: The region around a magnet where its effect is felt is the
A. neutral point
B. vacuum
C. magnetic field
D. electric circuit
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A magnetic field surrounds a magnet.
Question 63 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction Likelihood: High
Question: A current is induced in a conductor when there is
A. relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field
B. constant temperature only
C. no magnetic field
D. no change in flux
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Changing magnetic flux induces emf.
Question 64 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 20 m in 4 s. Its speed is
A. 8 m/s
B. 2.5 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 5 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 20/4 = 5 m/s.
Question 65 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 100 m in 10 s. Its speed is
A. 13 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 5 m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 100/10 = 10 m/s.
Question 66 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 150 m in 5 s. Its speed is
A. 30 m/s
B. 33 m/s
C. 15 m/s
D. 60 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 150/5 = 30 m/s.
Question 67 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 72 m in 9 s. Its speed is
A. 16 m/s
B. 8 m/s
C. 4 m/s
D. 11 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 72/9 = 8 m/s.
Question 68 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 90 m in 3 s. Its speed is
A. 15 m/s
B. 60 m/s
C. 33 m/s
D. 30 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 90/3 = 30 m/s.
Question 69 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 60 m in 12 s. Its speed is
A. 8 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 5 m/s
D. 2.5 m/s
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 187Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 60/12 = 5 m/s.
Question 70 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 200 m in 8 s. Its speed is
A. 50 m/s
B. 25 m/s
C. 12.5 m/s
D. 28 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 200/8 = 25 m/s.
Question 71 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 45 m in 5 s. Its speed is
A. 4.5 m/s
B. 18 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 9 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 45/5 = 9 m/s.
Question 72 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 300 m in 15 s. Its speed is
A. 20 m/s
B. 40 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 23 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 300/15 = 20 m/s.
Question 73 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body covers 84 m in 7 s. Its speed is
A. 15 m/s
B. 6 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 24 m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Speed = distance/time = 84/7 = 12 m/s.
Question 74 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. Its acceleration is
A. 6 m/s2
B. 2 m/s2
C. 4 m/s2
D. 8 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (30 - 10)/5 = 4 m/s2.
Question 75 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 0 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 s. Its acceleration is
A. 2.5 m/s2
B. 7 m/s2
C. 10 m/s2
D. 5 m/s2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (20 - 0)/4 = 5 m/s2.
Question 76 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 15 m/s to 35 m/s in 10 s. Its acceleration is
A. 4 m/s2
B. 3 m/s2
C. 2 m/s2
D. 1 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (35 - 15)/10 = 2 m/s2.
Question 77 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 8 m/s to 20 m/s in 3 s. Its acceleration is
A. 8 m/s2
B. 4 m/s2
C. 6 m/s2
D. 2 m/s2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (20 - 8)/3 = 4 m/s2.
Question 78 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 12 m/s to 12 m/s in 6 s. Its acceleration is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 188A. 2 m/s2
B. 0 m/s2
C. 1 m/s2
D. 3 m/s2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (12 - 12)/6 = 0 m/s2.
Question 79 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 5 m/s to 25 m/s in 4 s. Its acceleration is
A. 2.5 m/s2
B. 5 m/s2
C. 10 m/s2
D. 7 m/s2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (25 - 5)/4 = 5 m/s2.
Question 80 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 18 m/s to 30 m/s in 6 s. Its acceleration is
A. 4 m/s2
B. 1 m/s2
C. 3 m/s2
D. 2 m/s2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (30 - 18)/6 = 2 m/s2.
Question 81 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 40 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 s. Its acceleration is
A. 3 m/s2
B. -12 m/s2
C. -6 m/s2
D. -4 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (10 - 40)/5 = -6 m/s2.
Question 82 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 6 m/s to 18 m/s in 2 s. Its acceleration is
A. 3 m/s2
B. 12 m/s2
C. 8 m/s2
D. 6 m/s2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (18 - 6)/2 = 6 m/s2.
Question 83 Topic: Motion Likelihood: High
Question: A body changes its velocity from 0 m/s to 12 m/s in 3 s. Its acceleration is
A. 8 m/s2
B. 2 m/s2
C. 4 m/s2
D. 6 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Acceleration = (v - u)/t = (12 - 0)/3 = 4 m/s2.
Question 84 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 2 kg at 3 m/s2 is
A. 11 N
B. 6 N
C. 5 N
D. 3 N
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 2 x 3 = 6 N.
Question 85 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 5 kg at 4 m/s2 is
A. 10 N
B. 25 N
C. 20 N
D. 9 N
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 5 x 4 = 20 N.
Question 86 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 10 kg at 2 m/s2 is
A. 20 N
B. 10 N
C. 25 N
D. 12 N
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 189Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 10 x 2 = 20 N.
Question 87 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 8 kg at 1.5 m/s2 is
A. 12 N
B. 6 N
C. 9.5 N
D. 17 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 8 x 1.5 = 12 N.
Question 88 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 12 kg at 0.5 m/s2 is
A. 6 N
B. 11 N
C. 3 N
D. 12.5 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 12 x 0.5 = 6 N.
Question 89 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 3 kg at 9 m/s2 is
A. 27 N
B. 32 N
C. 13.5 N
D. 12 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 3 x 9 = 27 N.
Question 90 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 6 kg at 7 m/s2 is
A. 47 N
B. 42 N
C. 13 N
D. 21 N
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 6 x 7 = 42 N.
Question 91 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 4 kg at 2.5 m/s2 is
A. 6.5 N
B. 15 N
C. 5 N
D. 10 N
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 4 x 2.5 = 10 N.
Question 92 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 20 kg at 1 m/s2 is
A. 10 N
B. 25 N
C. 20 N
D. 21 N
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 20 x 1 = 20 N.
Question 93 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: High
Question: The force needed to accelerate a mass of 15 kg at 3 m/s2 is
A. 22.5 N
B. 50 N
C. 18 N
D. 45 N
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = 15 x 3 = 45 N.
Question 94 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 10 N moves a body through 5 m in its direction?
A. 25 J
B. 60 J
C. 15 J
D. 50 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 10 x 5 = 50 J.
Question 95 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 20 N moves a body through 3 m in its direction?
A. 30 J
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 190B. 60 J
C. 23 J
D. 70 J
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 20 x 3 = 60 J.
Question 96 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 15 N moves a body through 4 m in its direction?
A. 70 J
B. 60 J
C. 30 J
D. 19 J
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 15 x 4 = 60 J.
Question 97 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 50 N moves a body through 2 m in its direction?
A. 100 J
B. 50 J
C. 52 J
D. 110 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 50 x 2 = 100 J.
Question 98 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 8 N moves a body through 10 m in its direction?
A. 90 J
B. 40 J
C. 80 J
D. 18 J
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 8 x 10 = 80 J.
Question 99 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 12 N moves a body through 6 m in its direction?
A. 82 J
B. 72 J
C. 36 J
D. 18 J
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 12 x 6 = 72 J.
Question 100 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 25 N moves a body through 8 m in its direction?
A. 33 J
B. 210 J
C. 100 J
D. 200 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 25 x 8 = 200 J.
Question 101 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 30 N moves a body through 3 m in its direction?
A. 90 J
B. 45 J
C. 100 J
D. 33 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 30 x 3 = 90 J.
Question 102 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 5 N moves a body through 12 m in its direction?
A. 60 J
B. 17 J
C. 30 J
D. 70 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 5 x 12 = 60 J.
Question 103 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: What work is done when a force of 18 N moves a body through 5 m in its direction?
A. 45 J
B. 100 J
C. 23 J
D. 90 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Work = force x distance = 18 x 5 = 90 J.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 191Question 104 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 100 J of work in 5 s. Its power is
A. 20 W
B. 30 W
C. 105 W
D. 10 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Power = work/time = 100/5 = 20 W.
Question 105 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 240 J of work in 8 s. Its power is
A. 248 W
B. 15 W
C. 40 W
D. 30 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Power = work/time = 240/8 = 30 W.
Question 106 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 300 J of work in 10 s. Its power is
A. 40 W
B. 15 W
C. 30 W
D. 310 W
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power = work/time = 300/10 = 30 W.
Question 107 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 90 J of work in 3 s. Its power is
A. 30 W
B. 93 W
C. 15 W
D. 40 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Power = work/time = 90/3 = 30 W.
Question 108 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 120 J of work in 6 s. Its power is
A. 10 W
B. 126 W
C. 20 W
D. 30 W
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power = work/time = 120/6 = 20 W.
Question 109 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 200 J of work in 4 s. Its power is
A. 60 W
B. 204 W
C. 50 W
D. 25 W
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power = work/time = 200/4 = 50 W.
Question 110 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 150 J of work in 5 s. Its power is
A. 15 W
B. 155 W
C. 40 W
D. 30 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Power = work/time = 150/5 = 30 W.
Question 111 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 500 J of work in 20 s. Its power is
A. 520 W
B. 12.5 W
C. 25 W
D. 35 W
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power = work/time = 500/20 = 25 W.
Question 112 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 72 J of work in 8 s. Its power is
A. 19 W
B. 80 W
C. 9 W
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 192D. 4.5 W
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Power = work/time = 72/8 = 9 W.
Question 113 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: High
Question: A machine does 60 J of work in 2 s. Its power is
A. 62 W
B. 40 W
C. 15 W
D. 30 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Power = work/time = 60/2 = 30 W.
Question 114 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 2 Hz is
A. 1 s
B. 2 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 0.6 s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/2 = 0.5 s.
Question 115 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 5 Hz is
A. 0.2 s
B. 5 s
C. 0.3 s
D. 0.4 s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/5 = 0.2 s.
Question 116 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 10 Hz is
A. 10 s
B. 0.2 s
C. 1.1 s
D. 0.1 s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/10 = 0.1 s.
Question 117 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 20 Hz is
A. 0.15 s
B. 0.05 s
C. 20 s
D. 0.1 s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/20 = 0.05 s.
Question 118 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 25 Hz is
A. 0.08 s
B. 0.14 s
C. 0.04 s
D. 25 s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/25 = 0.04 s.
Question 119 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 50 Hz is
A. 0.02 s
B. 0.04 s
C. 50 s
D. 0.12 s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 s.
Question 120 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 100 Hz is
A. 100 s
B. 0.11 s
C. 0.02 s
D. 0.01 s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/100 = 0.01 s.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 193Question 121 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 200 Hz is
A. 0.005 s
B. 0.01 s
C. 200 s
D. 0.105 s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/200 = 0.005 s.
Question 122 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 250 Hz is
A. 0.008 s
B. 0.004 s
C. 0.104 s
D. 250 s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/250 = 0.004 s.
Question 123 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: The period of a wave of frequency 500 Hz is
A. 500 s
B. 0.004 s
C. 0.002 s
D. 0.102 s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Period T = 1/f = 1/500 = 0.002 s.
Question 124 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 2 Hz and wavelength 5 m. Its speed is
A. 7 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 5 m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 2 x 5 = 10 m/s.
Question 125 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 3 m. Its speed is
A. 30 m/s
B. 40 m/s
C. 13 m/s
D. 15 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 10 x 3 = 30 m/s.
Question 126 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 50 Hz and wavelength 0.5 m. Its speed is
A. 25 m/s
B. 12.5 m/s
C. 35 m/s
D. 50.5 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 50 x 0.5 = 25 m/s.
Question 127 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 20 Hz and wavelength 2 m. Its speed is
A. 20 m/s
B. 40 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 22 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 20 x 2 = 40 m/s.
Question 128 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 5 Hz and wavelength 8 m. Its speed is
A. 50 m/s
B. 13 m/s
C. 40 m/s
D. 20 m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 5 x 8 = 40 m/s.
Question 129 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 25 Hz and wavelength 4 m. Its speed is
A. 110 m/s
B. 29 m/s
C. 100 m/s
D. 50 m/s
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 194Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 25 x 4 = 100 m/s.
Question 130 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 100 Hz and wavelength 0.2 m. Its speed is
A. 10 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 100.2 m/s
D. 30 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 100 x 0.2 = 20 m/s.
Question 131 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 40 Hz and wavelength 1.5 m. Its speed is
A. 41.5 m/s
B. 30 m/s
C. 70 m/s
D. 60 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 40 x 1.5 = 60 m/s.
Question 132 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 8 Hz and wavelength 6 m. Its speed is
A. 24 m/s
B. 58 m/s
C. 14 m/s
D. 48 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 8 x 6 = 48 m/s.
Question 133 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: High
Question: A wave has frequency 60 Hz and wavelength 0.3 m. Its speed is
A. 18 m/s
B. 9 m/s
C. 60.3 m/s
D. 28 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Wave speed = frequency x wavelength = 60 x 0.3 = 18 m/s.
Question 134 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The normal is a line drawn
A. along the ray only
B. through the center of the Earth
C. parallel to the mirror surface
D. perpendicular to the reflecting surface
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The normal is at right angles to the surface.
Question 135 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The angle of incidence is the angle between
A. the incident ray and the mirror surface
B. the refracted ray and the normal only
C. the reflected ray and the surface
D. the incident ray and the normal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Angles are measured from the normal.
Question 136 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is
A. smaller than the angle of reflection
B. always 90°
C. equal to the angle of reflection
D. twice the angle of reflection
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For reflection, i = r.
Question 137 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A convex mirror always forms an image that is
A. virtual and inverted
B. virtual, upright and diminished
C. real and inverted
D. real and magnified
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Convex mirrors form upright diminished virtual images.
Question 138 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A concave mirror can produce a real image when the object is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 195A. very close to the mirror only
B. beyond the focal point
C. between the mirror and the focus only
D. at the focus only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Concave mirrors form real images for objects beyond F.
Question 139 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A convex lens is thicker at the
A. middle
B. bottom
C. edges
D. top
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Convex lenses bulge outward.
Question 140 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A concave lens is thicker at the
A. center only
B. edges
C. top
D. middle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Concave lenses are thinner at the center.
Question 141 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A converging lens is another name for a
A. prism
B. plane mirror
C. convex lens
D. concave lens
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Convex lenses converge parallel rays.
Question 142 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The splitting of white light into its component colours is
A. dispersion
B. interference
C. reflection
D. diffraction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dispersion separates colours by refraction.
Question 143 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: A rainbow is formed mainly due to
A. conduction of heat
B. dispersion of sunlight by water droplets
C. reflection from mirrors
D. magnetic induction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Refraction, reflection and dispersion in raindrops form a rainbow.
Question 144 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The image formed on the retina of the eye is
A. real and inverted
B. virtual and erect
C. real and erect
D. virtual and inverted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The eye forms a real inverted image on the retina.
Question 145 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The near point of a normal adult eye is about
A. 250 cm
B. 2.5 m
C. 2.5 cm
D. 25 cm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The least distance of distinct vision is about 25 cm.
Question 146 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: Long-sightedness is corrected with a
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. cylindrical lens
D. plane glass
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 196Explanation: A convex lens helps focus near objects on the retina.
Question 147 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: Short-sightedness is corrected with a
A. prism
B. convex lens
C. concave lens
D. plane mirror
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A concave lens diverges incoming rays.
Question 148 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The principal focus of a converging lens is the point where
A. parallel rays meet after refraction
B. all reflected rays diverge
C. the lens is thickest
D. the image is always virtual
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Parallel rays are brought to focus.
Question 149 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: Refraction occurs because light changes
A. frequency in vacuum
B. direction without change in speed
C. speed when it enters a new medium
D. colour always
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A change in speed causes bending.
Question 150 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from
A. air to glass only
B. a less dense medium to a denser medium
C. vacuum to water
D. a denser medium to a less dense medium
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The ray must go from denser to less dense medium.
Question 151 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: An optical fibre transmits light mainly by
A. total internal reflection
B. dispersion
C. absorption
D. diffraction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Light is guided within the fibre by repeated total internal reflection.
Question 152 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The colour of an object appears red because it
A. reflects red light and absorbs others
B. absorbs all colours
C. changes white light to red
D. emits red electrons
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The observed colour is the one reflected.
Question 153 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: High
Question: The speed of light in vacuum is approximately
A. 3.0 x 10^6 m/s
B. 3.0 x 10^10 m/s
C. 3.0 x 10^5 m/s
D. 3.0 x 10^8 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Light travels at about 3.0 x 10^8 m/s in vacuum.
Question 154 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 12 V and current 3 A. Its resistance is
A. 2 ohm
B. 4 ohm
C. 8 ohm
D. 15 ohm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 12/3 = 4 ohm.
Question 155 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 24 V and current 4 A. Its resistance is
A. 6 ohm
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 197B. 3 ohm
C. 12 ohm
D. 28 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 24/4 = 6 ohm.
Question 156 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 10 V and current 2 A. Its resistance is
A. 2.5 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 12 ohm
D. 5 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 10/2 = 5 ohm.
Question 157 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 30 V and current 5 A. Its resistance is
A. 3 ohm
B. 35 ohm
C. 6 ohm
D. 12 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 30/5 = 6 ohm.
Question 158 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 15 V and current 3 A. Its resistance is
A. 5 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 18 ohm
D. 2.5 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 15/3 = 5 ohm.
Question 159 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 18 V and current 6 A. Its resistance is
A. 1.5 ohm
B. 24 ohm
C. 6 ohm
D. 3 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 18/6 = 3 ohm.
Question 160 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 20 V and current 4 A. Its resistance is
A. 5 ohm
B. 2.5 ohm
C. 10 ohm
D. 24 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 20/4 = 5 ohm.
Question 161 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 6 V and current 2 A. Its resistance is
A. 3 ohm
B. 6 ohm
C. 8 ohm
D. 1.5 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 6/2 = 3 ohm.
Question 162 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 9 V and current 3 A. Its resistance is
A. 1.5 ohm
B. 6 ohm
C. 12 ohm
D. 3 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 9/3 = 3 ohm.
Question 163 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A conductor has potential difference 40 V and current 8 A. Its resistance is
A. 48 ohm
B. 2.5 ohm
C. 10 ohm
D. 5 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using R = V/I gives 40/8 = 5 ohm.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 198Question 164 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 2 A flows through a resistor of 5 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 7 V
B. 10 V
C. 5 V
D. 15 V
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 2 x 5 = 10 V.
Question 165 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 3 A flows through a resistor of 4 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 6 V
B. 7 V
C. 17 V
D. 12 V
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 3 x 4 = 12 V.
Question 166 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 0.5 A flows through a resistor of 8 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 2 V
B. 4 V
C. 9 V
D. 8.5 V
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 0.5 x 8 = 4 V.
Question 167 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 4 A flows through a resistor of 6 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 29 V
B. 10 V
C. 12 V
D. 24 V
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 4 x 6 = 24 V.
Question 168 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 1.5 A flows through a resistor of 10 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 11.5 V
B. 15 V
C. 7.5 V
D. 20 V
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 1.5 x 10 = 15 V.
Question 169 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 5 A flows through a resistor of 2 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 5 V
B. 15 V
C. 7 V
D. 10 V
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 5 x 2 = 10 V.
Question 170 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 0.2 A flows through a resistor of 20 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 4 V
B. 20.2 V
C. 9 V
D. 2 V
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 0.2 x 20 = 4 V.
Question 171 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 6 A flows through a resistor of 3 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 18 V
B. 9 V
C. 19 V
D. 23 V
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 6 x 3 = 18 V.
Question 172 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 2.5 A flows through a resistor of 8 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 25 V
B. 20 V
C. 10.5 V
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 199D. 10 V
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 2.5 x 8 = 20 V.
Question 173 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: A current of 7 A flows through a resistor of 1 ohm. The potential difference across it is
A. 8 V
B. 7 V
C. 3.5 V
D. 12 V
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using V = IR gives 7 x 1 = 7 V.
Question 174 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 2 ohm and 3 ohm connected in series is
A. 6 ohm
B. 1 ohm
C. 1.2 ohm
D. 5 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 2 + 3 = 5 ohm.
Question 175 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 4 ohm and 6 ohm connected in series is
A. 24 ohm
B. 2 ohm
C. 10 ohm
D. 2.4 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 4 + 6 = 10 ohm.
Question 176 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 5 ohm and 5 ohm connected in series is
A. 0 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 25 ohm
D. 2.5 ohm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 5 + 5 = 10 ohm.
Question 177 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 10 ohm and 20 ohm connected in series is
A. 6.66667 ohm
B. 200 ohm
C. 30 ohm
D. 10 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 10 + 20 = 30 ohm.
Question 178 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 3 ohm and 7 ohm connected in series is
A. 21 ohm
B. 2.1 ohm
C. 4 ohm
D. 10 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 3 + 7 = 10 ohm.
Question 179 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 8 ohm and 12 ohm connected in series is
A. 4.8 ohm
B. 4 ohm
C. 96 ohm
D. 20 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 8 + 12 = 20 ohm.
Question 180 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 1 ohm and 9 ohm connected in series is
A. 8 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 0.9 ohm
D. 9 ohm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 1 + 9 = 10 ohm.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 200Question 181 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 15 ohm and 5 ohm connected in series is
A. 3.75 ohm
B. 20 ohm
C. 75 ohm
D. 10 ohm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 15 + 5 = 20 ohm.
Question 182 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 6 ohm and 14 ohm connected in series is
A. 8 ohm
B. 84 ohm
C. 20 ohm
D. 4.2 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 6 + 14 = 20 ohm.
Question 183 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: The equivalent resistance of 11 ohm and 9 ohm connected in series is
A. 20 ohm
B. 2 ohm
C. 99 ohm
D. 4.95 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Resistances in series add directly: 11 + 9 = 20 ohm.
Question 184 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 12 V draws 2 A. Its power is
A. 24 W
B. 34 W
C. 14 W
D. 12 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 12 x 2 = 24 W.
Question 185 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 24 V draws 3 A. Its power is
A. 72 W
B. 27 W
C. 82 W
D. 36 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 24 x 3 = 72 W.
Question 186 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 10 V draws 5 A. Its power is
A. 50 W
B. 25 W
C. 60 W
D. 15 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 10 x 5 = 50 W.
Question 187 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 20 V draws 4 A. Its power is
A. 40 W
B. 90 W
C. 24 W
D. 80 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 20 x 4 = 80 W.
Question 188 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 6 V draws 0.5 A. Its power is
A. 13 W
B. 6.5 W
C. 1.5 W
D. 3 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 6 x 0.5 = 3 W.
Question 189 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 18 V draws 2 A. Its power is
A. 46 W
B. 36 W
C. 18 W
D. 20 W
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 201Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 18 x 2 = 36 W.
Question 190 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 30 V draws 1.5 A. Its power is
A. 31.5 W
B. 55 W
C. 22.5 W
D. 45 W
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 30 x 1.5 = 45 W.
Question 191 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 9 V draws 3 A. Its power is
A. 27 W
B. 12 W
C. 13.5 W
D. 37 W
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 9 x 3 = 27 W.
Question 192 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 40 V draws 2 A. Its power is
A. 42 W
B. 80 W
C. 90 W
D. 40 W
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 40 x 2 = 80 W.
Question 193 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: High
Question: An appliance connected to 15 V draws 6 A. Its power is
A. 100 W
B. 90 W
C. 21 W
D. 45 W
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Electrical power P = VI = 15 x 6 = 90 W.
Question 194 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The nucleus of an atom contains
A. only protons
B. electrons and positrons
C. protons and electrons
D. protons and neutrons
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrons are outside the nucleus.
Question 195 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: High
Question: The charge on an electron is
A. negative
B. positive
C. neutral
D. double positive
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrons carry negative charge.
Question 196 Topic: Simple Electronics Likelihood: High
Question: A diode allows current to flow
A. without any voltage
B. only in air
C. in one direction only
D. in both directions equally
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A diode conducts mainly in one direction.
Question 197 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: 1 m is equal to
A. 1000 m
B. 3600 s
C. 100 cm
D. 1000 cm3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 1 m = 100 cm.
Question 198 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: 1 cm is equal to
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 202A. 60 s
B. 3600 s
C. 0.01 m
D. 1000 kg
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 1 cm = 0.01 m.
Question 199 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: 1 kg is equal to
A. 1000 g
B. 1000 m
C. 100 cm
D. 1000 cm3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 1 kg = 1000 g.
Question 200 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: High
Question: 1 hour is equal to
A. 1000 kg
B. 3600 s
C. 1000 m
D. 3.6 km/h
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 1 hour = 3600 s.
Question 201 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 minute is equal to
A. 3.6 km/h
B. 1000 kg
C. 60 s
D. 100 cm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 1 minute = 60 s.
Question 202 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 km is equal to
A. 3.6 km/h
B. 1000 m
C. 3600 s
D. 1000 g
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 1 km = 1000 m.
Question 203 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 m/s is equal to
A. 3.6 km/h
B. 100 cm
C. 60 s
D. 1000 g
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 1 m/s = 3.6 km/h.
Question 204 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 tonne is equal to
A. 100 cm
B. 1000 g
C. 60 s
D. 1000 kg
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 1 tonne = 1000 kg.
Question 205 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 litre is equal to
A. 1000 cm3
B. 100 cm
C. 3.6 km/h
D. 1000 g
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 1 litre = 1000 cm3.
Question 206 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Medium
Question: 1 dm3 is equal to
A. 1000 cm3
B. 1000 kg
C. 1000 m
D. 3.6 km/h
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 203Explanation: 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3.
Question 207 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 6 m/s for 5 s. The distance covered is
A. 40 m
B. 15 m
C. 25 m
D. 30 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 6 x 5 = 30 m.
Question 208 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 10 m/s for 9 s. The distance covered is
A. 45 m
B. 100 m
C. 85 m
D. 90 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 10 x 9 = 90 m.
Question 209 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 15 m/s for 4 s. The distance covered is
A. 55 m
B. 60 m
C. 70 m
D. 30 m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 15 x 4 = 60 m.
Question 210 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 20 m/s for 3 s. The distance covered is
A. 60 m
B. 55 m
C. 70 m
D. 30 m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 20 x 3 = 60 m.
Question 211 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 12 m/s for 8 s. The distance covered is
A. 48 m
B. 106 m
C. 91 m
D. 96 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 12 x 8 = 96 m.
Question 212 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 25 m/s for 2 s. The distance covered is
A. 50 m
B. 25 m
C. 45 m
D. 60 m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 25 x 2 = 50 m.
Question 213 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 8 m/s for 7 s. The distance covered is
A. 28 m
B. 51 m
C. 56 m
D. 66 m
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 8 x 7 = 56 m.
Question 214 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 18 m/s for 6 s. The distance covered is
A. 54 m
B. 118 m
C. 103 m
D. 108 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 18 x 6 = 108 m.
Question 215 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 30 m/s for 5 s. The distance covered is
A. 145 m
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 204B. 150 m
C. 160 m
D. 75 m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 30 x 5 = 150 m.
Question 216 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A car moves at a constant speed of 14 m/s for 10 s. The distance covered is
A. 70 m
B. 135 m
C. 140 m
D. 150 m
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distance = speed x time = 14 x 10 = 140 m.
Question 217 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 0 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s2 for 5 s. Its final velocity is
A. 10 m/s
B. 12 m/s
C. 5 m/s
D. 11 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 0 + (2 x 5) = 10 m/s.
Question 218 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 5 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 3 m/s2 for 4 s. Its final velocity is
A. 20 m/s
B. 17 m/s
C. 9 m/s
D. 12 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 5 + (3 x 4) = 17 m/s.
Question 219 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 10 m/s and accelerates uniformly at -2 m/s2 for 3 s. Its final velocity is
A. 2 m/s
B. 4 m/s
C. -6 m/s
D. 13 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 10 + (-2 x 3) = 4 m/s.
Question 220 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 4 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 1.5 m/s2 for 6 s. Its final velocity is
A. 13 m/s
B. 9 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 14.5 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 4 + (1.5 x 6) = 13 m/s.
Question 221 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 12 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 0 m/s2 for 8 s. Its final velocity is
A. 12 m/s
B. 0 m/s
C. 13 m/s
D. 20 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 12 + (0 x 8) = 12 m/s.
Question 222 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 7 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s2 for 5 s. Its final velocity is
A. 10 m/s
B. 19 m/s
C. 17 m/s
D. 12 m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 7 + (2 x 5) = 17 m/s.
Question 223 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 20 m/s and accelerates uniformly at -5 m/s2 for 2 s. Its final velocity is
A. -10 m/s
B. 22 m/s
C. 5 m/s
D. 10 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 20 + (-5 x 2) = 10 m/s.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 205Question 224 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 3 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 4 m/s2 for 3 s. Its final velocity is
A. 15 m/s
B. 12 m/s
C. 6 m/s
D. 19 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 3 + (4 x 3) = 15 m/s.
Question 225 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 8 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 1 m/s2 for 10 s. Its final velocity is
A. 19 m/s
B. 18 m/s
C. 20 m/s
D. 10 m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 8 + (1 x 10) = 18 m/s.
Question 226 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body starts with velocity 15 m/s and accelerates uniformly at -3 m/s2 for 4 s. Its final velocity is
A. 19 m/s
B. -12 m/s
C. 0 m/s
D. 3 m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Using v = u + at gives 15 + (-3 x 4) = 3 m/s.
Question 227 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 0 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 s. The distance covered is
A. 20 m
B. 50 m
C. 41 m
D. 40 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((0+20)/2) x 4 = 40 m.
Question 228 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. The distance covered is
A. 100 m
B. 50 m
C. 110 m
D. 20 m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((10+30)/2) x 5 = 100 m.
Question 229 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 5 m/s to 25 m/s in 4 s. The distance covered is
A. 70 m
B. 30 m
C. 60 m
D. 20 m
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((5+25)/2) x 4 = 60 m.
Question 230 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 12 m/s to 12 m/s in 6 s. The distance covered is
A. 0 m
B. 72 m
C. 36 m
D. 82 m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((12+12)/2) x 6 = 72 m.
Question 231 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 8 m/s to 18 m/s in 2 s. The distance covered is
A. 10 m
B. 36 m
C. 13 m
D. 26 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((8+18)/2) x 2 = 26 m.
Question 232 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 15 m/s to 5 m/s in 5 s. The distance covered is
A. 60 m
B. 10 m
C. 50 m
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 206D. 25 m
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((15+5)/2) x 5 = 50 m.
Question 233 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 6 m/s to 24 m/s in 3 s. The distance covered is
A. 18 m
B. 55 m
C. 22.5 m
D. 45 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((6+24)/2) x 3 = 45 m.
Question 234 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 2 m/s to 10 m/s in 4 s. The distance covered is
A. 12 m
B. 34 m
C. 8 m
D. 24 m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((2+10)/2) x 4 = 24 m.
Question 235 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 20 m/s to 0 m/s in 5 s. The distance covered is
A. 60 m
B. 50 m
C. 25 m
D. 20 m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((20+0)/2) x 5 = 50 m.
Question 236 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body changes velocity uniformly from 4 m/s to 16 m/s in 6 s. The distance covered is
A. 70 m
B. 12 m
C. 60 m
D. 30 m
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distance = average velocity x time = ((4+16)/2) x 6 = 60 m.
Question 237 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 2 kg body is
A. 10 N
B. 30 N
C. 2 N
D. 20 N
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Weight = mg = 2 x 10 = 20 N.
Question 238 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 5 kg body is
A. 50 N
B. 25 N
C. 60 N
D. 5 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Weight = mg = 5 x 10 = 50 N.
Question 239 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 10 kg body is
A. 50 N
B. 100 N
C. 110 N
D. 10 N
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Weight = mg = 10 x 10 = 100 N.
Question 240 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 15 kg body is
A. 160 N
B. 15 N
C. 75 N
D. 150 N
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Weight = mg = 15 x 10 = 150 N.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 207Question 241 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 20 kg body is
A. 100 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 210 N
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Weight = mg = 20 x 10 = 200 N.
Question 242 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 25 kg body is
A. 250 N
B. 125 N
C. 25 N
D. 260 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Weight = mg = 25 x 10 = 250 N.
Question 243 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 30 kg body is
A. 30 N
B. 300 N
C. 310 N
D. 150 N
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Weight = mg = 30 x 10 = 300 N.
Question 244 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 40 kg body is
A. 200 N
B. 410 N
C. 40 N
D. 400 N
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Weight = mg = 40 x 10 = 400 N.
Question 245 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 50 kg body is
A. 500 N
B. 250 N
C. 50 N
D. 510 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Weight = mg = 50 x 10 = 500 N.
Question 246 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Medium
Question: Taking g = 10 m/s2, the weight of a 60 kg body is
A. 600 N
B. 300 N
C. 60 N
D. 610 N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Weight = mg = 60 x 10 = 600 N.
Question 247 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 20 N acts on an area of 4 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 2.5 Pa
B. 5 Pa
C. 10 Pa
D. 24 Pa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 20/4 = 5 Pa.
Question 248 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 100 N acts on an area of 5 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 40 Pa
B. 20 Pa
C. 10 Pa
D. 105 Pa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 100/5 = 20 Pa.
Question 249 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 60 N acts on an area of 3 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 20 Pa
B. 63 Pa
C. 40 Pa
D. 10 Pa
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 208Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 60/3 = 20 Pa.
Question 250 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 80 N acts on an area of 2 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 80 Pa
B. 40 Pa
C. 82 Pa
D. 20 Pa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 80/2 = 40 Pa.
Question 251 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 150 N acts on an area of 10 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 30 Pa
B. 7.5 Pa
C. 15 Pa
D. 160 Pa
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 150/10 = 15 Pa.
Question 252 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 45 N acts on an area of 9 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 5 Pa
B. 54 Pa
C. 10 Pa
D. 2.5 Pa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 45/9 = 5 Pa.
Question 253 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 36 N acts on an area of 6 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 6 Pa
B. 42 Pa
C. 3 Pa
D. 12 Pa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 36/6 = 6 Pa.
Question 254 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 72 N acts on an area of 8 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 80 Pa
B. 9 Pa
C. 18 Pa
D. 4.5 Pa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 72/8 = 9 Pa.
Question 255 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 90 N acts on an area of 3 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 60 Pa
B. 30 Pa
C. 15 Pa
D. 93 Pa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 90/3 = 30 Pa.
Question 256 Topic: Pressure Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 50 N acts on an area of 5 m2. The pressure produced is
A. 10 Pa
B. 5 Pa
C. 55 Pa
D. 20 Pa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure = force/area = 50/5 = 10 Pa.
Question 257 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 20 kg occupies a volume of 5 m3. Its density is
A. 25 kg/m3
B. 2 kg/m3
C. 8 kg/m3
D. 4 kg/m3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 20/5 = 4 kg/m3.
Question 258 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 80 kg occupies a volume of 10 m3. Its density is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 209A. 90 kg/m3
B. 8 kg/m3
C. 4 kg/m3
D. 16 kg/m3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 80/10 = 8 kg/m3.
Question 259 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 45 kg occupies a volume of 9 m3. Its density is
A. 54 kg/m3
B. 10 kg/m3
C. 2.5 kg/m3
D. 5 kg/m3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 45/9 = 5 kg/m3.
Question 260 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 100 kg occupies a volume of 20 m3. Its density is
A. 120 kg/m3
B. 10 kg/m3
C. 5 kg/m3
D. 2.5 kg/m3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 100/20 = 5 kg/m3.
Question 261 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 30 kg occupies a volume of 6 m3. Its density is
A. 2.5 kg/m3
B. 10 kg/m3
C. 5 kg/m3
D. 36 kg/m3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 30/6 = 5 kg/m3.
Question 262 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 72 kg occupies a volume of 8 m3. Its density is
A. 80 kg/m3
B. 18 kg/m3
C. 4.5 kg/m3
D. 9 kg/m3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 72/8 = 9 kg/m3.
Question 263 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 50 kg occupies a volume of 25 m3. Its density is
A. 2 kg/m3
B. 75 kg/m3
C. 4 kg/m3
D. 1 kg/m3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 50/25 = 2 kg/m3.
Question 264 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 18 kg occupies a volume of 3 m3. Its density is
A. 6 kg/m3
B. 3 kg/m3
C. 21 kg/m3
D. 12 kg/m3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 18/3 = 6 kg/m3.
Question 265 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 90 kg occupies a volume of 30 m3. Its density is
A. 3 kg/m3
B. 6 kg/m3
C. 120 kg/m3
D. 1.5 kg/m3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 90/30 = 3 kg/m3.
Question 266 Topic: Properties of Matter Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 60 kg occupies a volume of 12 m3. Its density is
A. 72 kg/m3
B. 2.5 kg/m3
C. 5 kg/m3
D. 10 kg/m3
Correct Answer: C
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 210Explanation: Density = mass/volume = 60/12 = 5 kg/m3.
Question 267 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 2 ohm and 3 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 1.2 ohm
B. 6 ohm
C. 0.666667 ohm
D. 5 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/2 + 1/3, so R = 1.2 ohm.
Question 268 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 4 ohm and 6 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 24 ohm
B. 0.666667 ohm
C. 2.4 ohm
D. 10 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/4 + 1/6, so R = 2.4 ohm.
Question 269 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 5 ohm and 5 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 1 ohm
B. 25 ohm
C. 10 ohm
D. 2.5 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/5 + 1/5, so R = 2.5 ohm.
Question 270 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 10 ohm and 20 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 30 ohm
B. 0.5 ohm
C. 6.66667 ohm
D. 200 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/10 + 1/20, so R = 6.66667 ohm.
Question 271 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 3 ohm and 7 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 2.1 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 21 ohm
D. 0.428571 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/3 + 1/7, so R = 2.1 ohm.
Question 272 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 8 ohm and 12 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 4.8 ohm
B. 96 ohm
C. 0.666667 ohm
D. 20 ohm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/8 + 1/12, so R = 4.8 ohm.
Question 273 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 1 ohm and 9 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 10 ohm
B. 9 ohm
C. 0.9 ohm
D. 0.111111 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/1 + 1/9, so R = 0.9 ohm.
Question 274 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 15 ohm and 5 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 75 ohm
B. 20 ohm
C. 3.75 ohm
D. 3 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/15 + 1/5, so R = 3.75 ohm.
Question 275 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 6 ohm and 14 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 0.428571 ohm
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 211B. 20 ohm
C. 4.2 ohm
D. 84 ohm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/6 + 1/14, so R = 4.2 ohm.
Question 276 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Medium
Question: The equivalent resistance of 11 ohm and 9 ohm connected in parallel is
A. 99 ohm
B. 20 ohm
C. 1.22222 ohm
D. 4.95 ohm
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: For parallel connection, 1/R = 1/11 + 1/9, so R = 4.95 ohm.
Question 277 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A magnetic material among the following is
A. iron
B. copper
C. aluminium
D. plastic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Iron is ferromagnetic.
Question 278 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor consists of
A. ellipses only
B. random paths
C. concentric circles
D. straight lines
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The field lines form concentric circles.
Question 279 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The earth behaves approximately like
A. a resistor
B. an insulator only
C. a giant magnet
D. a capacitor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Earth has a magnetic field.
Question 280 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A compass needle points north-south because
A. gravity forces it east-west
B. air pressure rotates it
C. it is attracted by the sun
D. it aligns with the Earth's magnetic field
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The compass aligns with Earth's field.
Question 281 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Magnetic field lines emerge from the
A. north pole and enter the south pole
B. center only
C. both poles equally
D. south pole and enter the north pole
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Outside the magnet, lines go from north to south.
Question 282 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Soft iron is used for electromagnets because it
A. is easily magnetized and demagnetized
B. has high resistance
C. retains magnetism strongly
D. is non-magnetic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Soft iron responds quickly to magnetic fields.
Question 283 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Steel is used for permanent magnets because it
A. retains magnetism for a long time
B. cannot be magnetized
C. is very soft
D. is a poor conductor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Steel has high retentivity.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 212Question 284 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An electric bell works using
A. solar cells
B. an electromagnet
C. a permanent magnet only
D. static electricity only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The bell is an application of electromagnetism.
Question 285 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A transformer works on the principle of
A. electromagnetic induction
B. electrolysis
C. photoelectric effect
D. electrostatic induction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Transformers use changing magnetic flux.
Question 286 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A step-up transformer increases
A. voltage
B. charge only
C. resistance only
D. current always
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A step-up transformer raises voltage.
Question 287 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A fuse protects an electrical circuit by
A. increasing resistance permanently
B. storing charge
C. providing earth connection
D. melting when current is excessive
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Excess current heats the fuse wire until it melts.
Question 288 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The unit of electrical energy commonly used by utility companies is
A. joule per second
B. newton metre
C. ampere-hour
D. kilowatt-hour
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Domestic electricity billing uses the kilowatt-hour.
Question 289 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The earth wire in a plug is mainly for
A. providing heat
B. measuring voltage
C. increasing current
D. safety
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: It prevents electric shock by carrying fault current to ground.
Question 290 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Static electricity is produced mainly by
A. friction
B. convection
C. fusion
D. electrolysis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rubbing transfers electrons.
Question 291 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A capacitor is used mainly to
A. measure current
B. generate heat
C. store electric charge
D. produce sound
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Capacitors store charge on plates.
Question 292 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A transistor is mainly used to
A. focus light
B. generate radioactivity
C. measure density
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 213D. amplify or switch signals
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Transistors are electronic control devices.
Question 293 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A light-emitting diode is abbreviated as
A. LED
B. LDR
C. LCD
D. ACD
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: LED stands for light-emitting diode.
Question 294 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An LDR is a resistor whose resistance changes with
A. temperature only
B. mass
C. pressure only
D. light intensity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: LDR means light-dependent resistor.
Question 295 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The magnetic effect of electric current is stronger when the current is
A. smaller
B. constant only
C. zero
D. larger
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A greater current produces a stronger magnetic field.
Question 296 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The direction of induced current depends on
A. only the mass of the conductor
B. the direction of motion or change of field
C. the temperature of the room
D. only the colour of wire
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Changing the direction of motion changes induced current direction.
Question 297 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The expansion of solids, liquids and gases on heating is due to
A. increase in kinetic energy of particles
B. change in colour
C. loss of pressure only
D. decrease in mass
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Heating makes particles move more vigorously and spread apart.
Question 298 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The bimetallic strip works because different metals
A. have the same colour
B. expand by different amounts
C. conduct electricity equally
D. have equal densities
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Unequal expansion makes the strip bend.
Question 299 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A thermometer works on the principle of
A. electrolysis
B. expansion of a liquid with temperature
C. friction
D. magnetic induction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Liquids such as mercury expand when heated.
Question 300 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Sea breeze occurs during the day because
A. the moon attracts sea water
B. land heats up faster than water
C. air pressure is equal
D. water heats up faster than land
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warm air rises over land and cooler air moves in from the sea.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 214Question 301 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Land breeze occurs at night because
A. clouds block the wind
B. water cools faster than land
C. land cools faster than water
D. the sea becomes colder instantly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cooler air flows from land to sea at night.
Question 302 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The latent heat of fusion is the heat needed to
A. increase pressure only
B. change gas to liquid
C. raise the temperature of a liquid
D. change solid to liquid without temperature change
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: It is used during melting at constant temperature.
Question 303 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The latent heat of vaporization is the heat needed to
A. heat a gas by one degree
B. cool a liquid
C. change solid to gas with temperature rise
D. change liquid to gas without temperature change
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: It is used during boiling.
Question 304 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Evaporation causes cooling because
A. the liquid gains heat
B. all molecules stop moving
C. pressure becomes zero
D. higher-energy molecules escape from the liquid
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Escaping molecules take away energy.
Question 305 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The specific heat capacity of a substance is the heat required to raise the temperature of
A. unit mass by 1 K
B. one litre by 1°C
C. any mass by 10 K
D. the whole body to boiling point
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Specific heat capacity is per unit mass per degree.
Question 306 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Water is useful as a coolant because it
A. is highly compressible
B. expands on all heating
C. has low boiling point
D. has a high specific heat capacity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Water absorbs a lot of heat with small temperature rise.
Question 307 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Convection currents in air are caused by differences in
A. magnetism
B. density
C. colour
D. conductivity only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warmer air is less dense and rises.
Question 308 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Shiny surfaces are poor emitters of heat because they
A. have zero mass
B. contain no particles
C. reflect thermal radiation strongly
D. conduct no heat
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shiny surfaces are poor absorbers and emitters.
Question 309 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A vacuum flask reduces heat loss by conduction, convection and
A. diffraction
B. polarization
C. radiation
D. induction
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 215Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Its design minimizes all three modes of heat transfer.
Question 310 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The kelvin scale differs from the Celsius scale mainly in that
A. it uses Fahrenheit units
B. it has no upper limit
C. 0 K is absolute zero
D. water boils at 0 K
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kelvin starts at absolute zero.
Question 311 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Absolute zero is approximately
A. 0°C
B. 273°C
C. -273°C
D. -100°C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 0 K corresponds to about -273°C.
Question 312 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Alpha particles are
A. electrons
B. high-energy photons
C. helium nuclei
D. neutrons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Alpha particles consist of two protons and two neutrons.
Question 313 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Beta particles are
A. gamma rays
B. protons
C. fast-moving electrons
D. helium nuclei
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Beta radiation commonly consists of electrons.
Question 314 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Gamma rays are
A. helium nuclei
B. electromagnetic waves of very high frequency
C. streams of protons
D. sound waves
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gamma rays are highly energetic electromagnetic radiation.
Question 315 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Radioactivity is the spontaneous disintegration of
A. conductors only
B. all molecules
C. stable atoms
D. unstable nuclei
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Unstable nuclei emit radiation spontaneously.
Question 316 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The random nature of radioactive decay means it
A. cannot be predicted exactly for a single nucleus
B. never occurs
C. is caused by temperature only
D. stops in a vacuum
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Decay is spontaneous and random.
Question 317 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time taken for
A. the activity to double
B. half the original nuclei to decay
C. temperature to rise by half
D. all the nuclei to decay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Half-life measures the rate of decay.
Question 318 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A device used to detect radioactivity is the
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 216A. ammeter
B. Geiger-Muller tube
C. hydrometer
D. barometer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Geiger-Muller tube detects ionizing radiation.
Question 319 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: One use of radioisotopes in medicine is
A. tracing and treatment
B. insulating wires
C. lubricating machines
D. cooling engines
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Radioisotopes help in diagnosis and therapy.
Question 320 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The danger of excessive exposure to ionizing radiation includes
A. damage to body cells
B. increase in mass
C. improved eyesight
D. better conductivity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Radiation can damage living tissues.
Question 321 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Nuclear fission involves
A. freezing particles
B. emission of only light
C. joining light nuclei
D. splitting a heavy nucleus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fission splits heavy nuclei like uranium.
Question 322 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Nuclear fusion involves
A. combining light nuclei
B. neutralizing ions
C. breaking molecules only
D. splitting heavy nuclei
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fusion joins light nuclei.
Question 323 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The sun produces energy mainly by
A. nuclear fission
B. chemical combustion
C. electrolysis
D. nuclear fusion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The sun fuses hydrogen into helium.
Question 324 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The charge of a proton is equal in magnitude to that of an electron but
A. negative
B. positive
C. neutral
D. double positive
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Protons carry positive charge.
Question 325 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The nucleon number of an atom is also called the
A. charge number
B. mass number
C. proton number
D. atomic number
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It counts protons and neutrons.
Question 326 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The atomic number of an atom is the number of
A. protons
B. electrons and neutrons
C. neutrons
D. nucleons
Correct Answer: A
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 217Explanation: Atomic number defines the element.
Question 327 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: Momentum is the product of
A. pressure and area
B. mass and acceleration
C. force and time
D. mass and velocity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Momentum p = mv.
Question 328 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: The SI unit of momentum is
A. J/s
B. kg/m3
C. kg m/s
D. N/m2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Momentum has unit kg m/s.
Question 329 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: Impulse is equal to
A. force x time
B. power x time
C. mass x acceleration
D. force x distance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Impulse equals change in momentum and also force times time.
Question 330 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: The turning effect of a force about a pivot is called
A. impulse
B. moment
C. power
D. pressure
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance.
Question 331 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: The SI unit of moment is
A. joule per second
B. pascal metre
C. kilogram metre
D. newton metre
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moment is measured in N m.
Question 332 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: For a body in rotational equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments is
A. zero while anticlockwise moments are maximum
B. equal to the sum of anticlockwise moments
C. always greater than anticlockwise moments
D. independent of force
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This is the principle of moments.
Question 333 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A machine is a device that
A. makes work easier
B. creates energy from nothing
C. reduces mass
D. increases time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Machines make work easier by changing the magnitude or direction of a force.
Question 334 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: Mechanical advantage is the ratio of
A. distance moved by effort to distance moved by load
B. load to effort
C. effort to load
D. work output to work input
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: MA = load/effort.
Question 335 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: Velocity ratio is the ratio of
A. effort to load
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 218B. load to effort
C. work output to input
D. distance moved by effort to distance moved by load
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Velocity ratio compares distances moved.
Question 336 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: Efficiency of a machine is
A. effort/load x 100%
B. distance/time
C. useful work output divided by work input x 100%
D. load x effort
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Efficiency measures how much input work becomes useful output.
Question 337 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A pulley is mainly used to
A. reduce friction to zero
B. increase mass
C. measure pressure
D. change the direction of an applied force
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Simple pulleys can change force direction.
Question 338 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A wheelbarrow is an example of a
A. second-class lever
B. non-mechanical device
C. first-class lever
D. third-class lever
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In a wheelbarrow the load is between effort and pivot.
Question 339 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A pair of scissors is an example of a
A. first-class lever
B. second-class lever
C. third-class lever
D. hydraulic machine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The pivot lies between effort and load.
Question 340 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: The forearm operated by the biceps is an example of a
A. first-class lever
B. hydraulic machine
C. third-class lever
D. second-class lever
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The effort acts between the pivot and the load.
Question 341 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A screw jack operates on the principle of
A. thermal expansion
B. electrolysis
C. conversion of circular motion to linear motion
D. magnetic induction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Turning the screw lifts the load vertically.
Question 342 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 15 kg m/s
B. 7 kg m/s
C. 5 kg m/s
D. 10 kg m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 2 x 5 = 10 kg m/s.
Question 343 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 4 kg moves with velocity 3 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 17 kg m/s
B. 7 kg m/s
C. 6 kg m/s
D. 12 kg m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 4 x 3 = 12 kg m/s.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 219Question 344 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 10 kg moves with velocity 2 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 25 kg m/s
B. 10 kg m/s
C. 12 kg m/s
D. 20 kg m/s
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 10 x 2 = 20 kg m/s.
Question 345 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 0.5 kg moves with velocity 8 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 4 kg m/s
B. 2 kg m/s
C. 9 kg m/s
D. 8.5 kg m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 0.5 x 8 = 4 kg m/s.
Question 346 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 6 kg moves with velocity 7 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 42 kg m/s
B. 47 kg m/s
C. 21 kg m/s
D. 13 kg m/s
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 6 x 7 = 42 kg m/s.
Question 347 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 3 kg moves with velocity 12 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 41 kg m/s
B. 36 kg m/s
C. 18 kg m/s
D. 15 kg m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 3 x 12 = 36 kg m/s.
Question 348 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 15 kg moves with velocity 4 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 19 kg m/s
B. 65 kg m/s
C. 60 kg m/s
D. 30 kg m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 15 x 4 = 60 kg m/s.
Question 349 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 8 kg moves with velocity 6 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 14 kg m/s
B. 53 kg m/s
C. 48 kg m/s
D. 24 kg m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 8 x 6 = 48 kg m/s.
Question 350 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 20 kg moves with velocity 1.5 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 21.5 kg m/s
B. 35 kg m/s
C. 30 kg m/s
D. 15 kg m/s
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 20 x 1.5 = 30 kg m/s.
Question 351 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A body of mass 5 kg moves with velocity 9 m/s. Its momentum is
A. 22.5 kg m/s
B. 45 kg m/s
C. 50 kg m/s
D. 14 kg m/s
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Momentum = mv = 5 x 9 = 45 kg m/s.
Question 352 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 10 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 2 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 30 N m
B. 20 N m
C. 12 N m
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 220D. 10 N m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 10 x 2 = 20 N m.
Question 353 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 20 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 0.5 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 20.5 N m
B. 20 N m
C. 5 N m
D. 10 N m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 20 x 0.5 = 10 N m.
Question 354 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 15 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 3 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 45 N m
B. 55 N m
C. 18 N m
D. 22.5 N m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 15 x 3 = 45 N m.
Question 355 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 40 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 1.5 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 30 N m
B. 70 N m
C. 41.5 N m
D. 60 N m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 40 x 1.5 = 60 N m.
Question 356 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 8 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 4 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 32 N m
B. 12 N m
C. 42 N m
D. 16 N m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 8 x 4 = 32 N m.
Question 357 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 12 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 0.25 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 13 N m
B. 3 N m
C. 1.5 N m
D. 12.25 N m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 12 x 0.25 = 3 N m.
Question 358 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 30 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 2 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 30 N m
B. 60 N m
C. 70 N m
D. 32 N m
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 30 x 2 = 60 N m.
Question 359 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 5 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 6 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 30 N m
B. 40 N m
C. 11 N m
D. 15 N m
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 5 x 6 = 30 N m.
Question 360 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 18 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 3 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 64 N m
B. 21 N m
C. 27 N m
D. 54 N m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 18 x 3 = 54 N m.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 221Question 361 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Medium
Question: A force of 25 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 0.8 m from a pivot. The moment is
A. 25.8 N m
B. 10 N m
C. 30 N m
D. 20 N m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Moment = force x perpendicular distance = 25 x 0.8 = 20 N m.
Question 362 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: A hydrometer is used to measure
A. relative density of liquids
B. electric current
C. pressure of gases
D. specific heat capacity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A hydrometer measures relative density.
Question 363 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: Relative density is the ratio of
A. pressure to force
B. weight to mass
C. mass to volume
D. density of a substance to density of water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Relative density compares density with water.
Question 364 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: A ship made of steel floats because
A. its average density is less than that of water
B. steel is lighter than water
C. there is no gravity on water
D. water has no pressure
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The hollow shape lowers average density.
Question 365 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: The pressure at a point in a liquid depends on
A. surface area alone
B. depth and density of the liquid
C. shape of the container only
D. colour and temperature only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Liquid pressure is influenced by depth and density.
Question 366 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: The atmosphere exerts pressure due to
A. earth's magnetism
B. rainfall only
C. sunlight
D. the weight of air
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Air has weight and so exerts pressure.
Question 367 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: A barometer is used to measure
A. humidity
B. temperature
C. liquid density
D. atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A barometer measures air pressure.
Question 368 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: When an object is completely immersed in water, the upthrust equals
A. the volume of the object only
B. the weight of the object always
C. the weight of water displaced
D. the density of the object
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: By Archimedes' principle, upthrust equals the weight of displaced fluid.
Question 369 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: A submarine can sink or rise by
A. changing its average density
B. stopping all engines
C. changing the mass of water
D. using only magnets
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 222Correct Answer: A
Explanation: It changes density by taking in or expelling water from ballast tanks.
Question 370 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: The SI unit of density is
A. J/kg
B. N/m2
C. kg m/s
D. kg/m3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Density is mass per unit volume.
Question 371 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object sinks in a liquid when
A. its density is greater than that of the liquid
B. its volume is very large
C. upthrust is greater than its weight
D. its mass is zero
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A denser object weighs more than the upthrust it receives.
Question 372 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Echoes are produced by
A. refraction of light
B. diffraction of sound only
C. reflection of sound
D. conduction of heat
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Echoes arise when sound reflects from a distant surface.
Question 373 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: The pitch of a note depends on its
A. frequency
B. amplitude
C. quality
D. speed only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Higher frequency means higher pitch.
Question 374 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: The loudness of a sound depends mainly on its
A. amplitude
B. pitch
C. speed
D. wavelength
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Greater amplitude means louder sound.
Question 375 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: The quality or timbre of sound depends on
A. waveform and overtones
B. speed only
C. distance only
D. air pressure only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Different waveforms give different timbres.
Question 376 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Ultrasound refers to sound with frequency above
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 20,000 Hz
D. 200,000,000 Hz
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ultrasound has frequency above human hearing range.
Question 377 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: A sonar system works by using
A. electrolysis
B. reflection of sound waves
C. nuclear fission
D. thermal radiation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: SONAR sends and receives sound echoes.
Question 378 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: The human ear is most sensitive to frequencies roughly between
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 223A. 2 Hz and 200 Hz
B. 200 Hz and 2,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz
D. 2,000 Hz and 200,000 Hz
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: This is the approximate audible range.
Question 379 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: A resonance condition occurs when
A. amplitude is always small
B. the body stops vibrating
C. the driving frequency equals the natural frequency
D. frequency becomes zero
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Resonance produces maximum amplitude.
Question 380 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: Noise is described as
A. a wave without energy
B. a wave with low frequency only
C. a reflected wave
D. unwanted sound
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Noise is sound that is not desired.
Question 381 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Medium
Question: The speed of sound in air increases when
A. pressure is zero
B. the air becomes colder
C. temperature rises
D. air is removed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Higher temperature makes molecules move faster.
Question 382 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 10 cm has an image of height 5 cm. The magnification is
A. 0.25
B. 1
C. 15
D. 0.5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 5/10 = 0.5.
Question 383 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 15 cm has an image of height 3 cm. The magnification is
A. 18
B. 0.2
C. 0.4
D. 0.1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 3/15 = 0.2.
Question 384 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 20 cm has an image of height 4 cm. The magnification is
A. 24
B. 0.2
C. 0.1
D. 0.4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 4/20 = 0.2.
Question 385 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 8 cm has an image of height 2 cm. The magnification is
A. 10
B. 0.125
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 2/8 = 0.25.
Question 386 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 12 cm has an image of height 6 cm. The magnification is
A. 1
B. 18
C. 0.25
D. 0.5
Correct Answer: D
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 224Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 6/12 = 0.5.
Question 387 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 9 cm has an image of height 3 cm. The magnification is
A. 0.666667
B. 12
C. 0.166667
D. 0.333333
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 3/9 = 0.333333.
Question 388 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 25 cm has an image of height 5 cm. The magnification is
A. 0.2
B. 0.1
C. 0.4
D. 30
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 5/25 = 0.2.
Question 389 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 18 cm has an image of height 6 cm. The magnification is
A. 24
B. 0.666667
C. 0.333333
D. 0.166667
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 6/18 = 0.333333.
Question 390 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 14 cm has an image of height 7 cm. The magnification is
A. 21
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 7/14 = 0.5.
Question 391 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: An object of height 16 cm has an image of height 4 cm. The magnification is
A. 20
B. 0.125
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Magnification = image height/object height = 4/16 = 0.25.
Question 392 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The principal focus of a concave lens is
A. real
B. at infinity always
C. behind the object only
D. virtual
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A concave lens causes rays to diverge from a virtual focus.
Question 393 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A camera forms images that are
A. virtual and erect
B. real and erect
C. virtual and inverted
D. real and inverted
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cameras use converging lenses to form real inverted images on film or sensors.
Question 394 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The diaphragm in a camera controls
A. the focal length permanently
B. the amount of light entering the camera
C. the weight of the camera
D. the speed of sound
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The aperture regulates light intensity.
Question 395 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The shutter of a camera controls
A. the refractive index
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 225B. the time for which light enters
C. the object distance
D. the colour of the image
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The shutter determines exposure time.
Question 396 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A periscope works mainly by using
A. reflection in plane mirrors
B. refraction in lenses
C. diffraction
D. electrolysis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mirrors are arranged to reflect light around obstacles.
Question 397 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The image in a pin-hole camera is formed because light travels in
A. curved lines
B. straight lines
C. circles
D. waves only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rectilinear propagation forms the image.
Question 398 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: Mirage on a hot road is mainly due to
A. refraction in layers of air of different densities
B. magnetic fields
C. sound interference
D. reflection from mirrors
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Temperature gradients change air density and bend light.
Question 399 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: The apparent bending of a stick in water is due to
A. reflection
B. polarization
C. refraction
D. dispersion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Light changes direction at the water-air boundary.
Question 400 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Medium
Question: A lens used as a magnifying glass is a
A. convex lens
B. plane mirror
C. prism
D. concave lens
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A convex lens forms a magnified virtual image when the object is within the focal length.
Question 401 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Low
Question: The refractive index of a medium is related to
A. resistance to current
B. mass to volume ratio
C. pressure to area
D. the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to speed in the medium
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: n = c/v.
Question 402 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: Electrical energy consumed is given by
A. force x distance
B. power x time
C. voltage/current
D. current/resistance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time.
Question 403 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A 1000 W appliance used for 1 hour consumes
A. 10 kWh
B. 0.1 kWh
C. 1000 kWh
D. 1 kWh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 1 kW used for 1 hour equals 1 kWh.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 226Question 404 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: Household electric bulbs are usually connected in
A. single loop only
B. parallel
C. series
D. opposition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Parallel connection allows independent operation.
Question 405 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: When bulbs are connected in parallel, each bulb gets
A. the full supply voltage
B. double the supply voltage
C. no current
D. half the supply voltage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In parallel, voltage across each branch is the same as supply.
Question 406 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The purpose of insulation around a wire is to
A. reduce voltage to zero
B. make the wire magnetic
C. prevent electric shock and short circuit
D. increase current
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Insulation keeps current confined to the conductor.
Question 407 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A short circuit occurs when
A. a very low-resistance path bypasses the load
B. current becomes zero
C. resistance becomes infinite
D. voltage disappears from the mains
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A short circuit allows excessive current.
Question 408 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: Direct current flows
A. only in metals
B. alternately in opposite directions
C. in one direction only
D. without charge
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: DC maintains a single direction of flow.
Question 409 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: Alternating current changes
A. charge carriers
B. colour
C. direction periodically
D. mass
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: AC reverses direction repeatedly.
Question 410 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: Mains electricity in many places is supplied as
A. nuclear current
B. static current
C. direct current
D. alternating current
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Domestic mains is AC.
Question 411 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The live wire in household wiring is usually coloured
A. blue
B. green-yellow
C. brown
D. black-white
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Modern wiring codes use brown for live.
Question 412 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The neutral wire is usually coloured
A. green-yellow
B. red
C. brown
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 227D. blue
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Modern wiring codes use blue for neutral.
Question 413 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The earth wire is usually coloured
A. white
B. green and yellow
C. blue
D. brown
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Green-yellow identifies the earth wire.
Question 414 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The heating effect of current is greater when the current is
A. larger
B. constant only
C. smaller
D. zero
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Heating is proportional to I^2R.
Question 415 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A resistor in a circuit is used to
A. limit current
B. store charge
C. generate magnetism only
D. increase mass
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Resistors oppose current flow.
Question 416 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The filament of an electric bulb is made of tungsten because tungsten
A. does not glow
B. is cheap and soft
C. has a very high melting point
D. is a poor conductor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tungsten can become white-hot without melting easily.
Question 417 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 2 A flows for 5 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 10 C
B. 7 C
C. 15 C
D. 5 C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 2 x 5 = 10 C.
Question 418 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 3 A flows for 10 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 15 C
B. 30 C
C. 35 C
D. 13 C
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 3 x 10 = 30 C.
Question 419 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 0.5 A flows for 20 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 10 C
B. 5 C
C. 15 C
D. 20.5 C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 0.5 x 20 = 10 C.
Question 420 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 4 A flows for 15 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 65 C
B. 30 C
C. 60 C
D. 19 C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 4 x 15 = 60 C.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 228Question 421 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 1.5 A flows for 8 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 17 C
B. 6 C
C. 9.5 C
D. 12 C
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 1.5 x 8 = 12 C.
Question 422 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 5 A flows for 12 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 30 C
B. 60 C
C. 65 C
D. 17 C
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 5 x 12 = 60 C.
Question 423 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 0.2 A flows for 50 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 5 C
B. 50.2 C
C. 10 C
D. 15 C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 0.2 x 50 = 10 C.
Question 424 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 6 A flows for 7 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 42 C
B. 21 C
C. 13 C
D. 47 C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 6 x 7 = 42 C.
Question 425 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 2.5 A flows for 16 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 18.5 C
B. 45 C
C. 40 C
D. 20 C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 2.5 x 16 = 40 C.
Question 426 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: A current of 10 A flows for 3 s. The quantity of charge passed is
A. 13 C
B. 15 C
C. 30 C
D. 35 C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Charge Q = It = 10 x 3 = 30 C.
Question 427 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1000 W is used for 2 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 3.6e+06 J
B. 7.2e+06 J
C. 7.201e+06 J
D. 2000 J
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1000 x (2 x 3600) = 7.2e+06 J.
Question 428 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 500 W is used for 3 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 1500 J
B. 5.401e+06 J
C. 2.7e+06 J
D. 5.4e+06 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 500 x (3 x 3600) = 5.4e+06 J.
Question 429 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 200 W is used for 5 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 1.8e+06 J
B. 1000 J
C. 3.6e+06 J
D. 3.601e+06 J
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 229Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 200 x (5 x 3600) = 3.6e+06 J.
Question 430 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1500 W is used for 1 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 1500 J
B. 5.401e+06 J
C. 2.7e+06 J
D. 5.4e+06 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1500 x (1 x 3600) = 5.4e+06 J.
Question 431 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 60 W is used for 10 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 600 J
B. 2.161e+06 J
C. 1.08e+06 J
D. 2.16e+06 J
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 60 x (10 x 3600) = 2.16e+06 J.
Question 432 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 250 W is used for 4 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 1000 J
B. 3.6e+06 J
C. 3.601e+06 J
D. 1.8e+06 J
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 250 x (4 x 3600) = 3.6e+06 J.
Question 433 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 100 W is used for 6 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 2.16e+06 J
B. 600 J
C. 1.08e+06 J
D. 2.161e+06 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 100 x (6 x 3600) = 2.16e+06 J.
Question 434 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1200 W is used for 0.5 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 2.16e+06 J
B. 600 J
C. 2.161e+06 J
D. 1.08e+06 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1200 x (0.5 x 3600) = 2.16e+06 J.
Question 435 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 300 W is used for 2 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 2.161e+06 J
B. 600 J
C. 2.16e+06 J
D. 1.08e+06 J
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 300 x (2 x 3600) = 2.16e+06 J.
Question 436 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 800 W is used for 1.5 h. The electrical energy consumed is
A. 4.32e+06 J
B. 4.321e+06 J
C. 1200 J
D. 2.16e+06 J
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 800 x (1.5 x 3600) = 4.32e+06 J.
Question 437 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: The force that attracts objects towards the center of the Earth is
A. tension
B. friction
C. upthrust
D. gravity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gravity is the attractive force of the Earth.
Question 438 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: Mass differs from weight because mass
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 230A. depends on g
B. is measured in newtons
C. is constant everywhere
D. is a force
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mass is the amount of matter and does not change with location.
Question 439 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: A freely falling body in vacuum has acceleration
A. dependent on its mass
B. equal to its speed
C. zero
D. g
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In vacuum, all bodies fall with the same acceleration g.
Question 440 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: The value of g near the surface of the Earth is approximately
A. 0.98 m/s2
B. 98 m/s2
C. 9.8 m/s2
D. 1 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: g is about 9.8 m/s2, often taken as 10 m/s2.
Question 441 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: A body thrown vertically upward has velocity
A. negative only at launch
B. constant throughout
C. maximum at the highest point
D. zero at the highest point
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Its upward velocity reduces to zero momentarily at the top.
Question 442 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: The time taken by a pendulum to complete one oscillation is its
A. period
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. phase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The period is one full oscillation time.
Question 443 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: Increasing the length of a simple pendulum generally
A. increases its period
B. makes the period zero
C. decreases its period
D. has no effect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A longer pendulum swings more slowly.
Question 444 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum has
A. a very large effect always
B. an inverse effect only
C. little effect on its period
D. an effect only in vacuum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Period depends mainly on length and g.
Question 445 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: A rocket moves forward because
A. gases are expelled backward
B. air pushes it from the front
C. it has no mass
D. there is no gravity in space
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This is an application of Newton's third law.
Question 446 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: Satellites remain in orbit because
A. they are weightless and motionless
B. gravity provides the centripetal force
C. air friction holds them up
D. there is no gravity at that height
Correct Answer: B
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 231Explanation: Orbital motion results from gravity acting as centripetal force.
Question 447 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Low
Question: The SI unit of energy is
A. joule
B. newton
C. pascal
D. watt
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy is measured in joules.
Question 448 Topic: Measurements and Units Likelihood: Low
Question: The SI unit of charge is
A. ampere
B. ohm
C. volt
D. coulomb
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electric charge is measured in coulombs.
Question 449 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: A body at rest has
A. maximum momentum
B. constant acceleration
C. infinite inertia
D. zero speed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: If a body is at rest, its speed is zero.
Question 450 Topic: Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: Uniform motion means motion with
A. constant acceleration only
B. decreasing momentum
C. constant velocity
D. increasing speed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Uniform motion means equal displacement in equal intervals of time in a straight line.
Question 451 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Low
Question: Balanced forces on a body produce
A. zero mass
B. infinite pressure
C. maximum acceleration
D. no change in motion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: When forces balance, the resultant force is zero.
Question 452 Topic: Forces and Equilibrium Likelihood: Low
Question: Tension acts through
A. a stretched string or rope
B. vacuum
C. a liquid only
D. a magnetic field only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tension is transmitted through stretched strings.
Question 453 Topic: Work, Energy and Power Likelihood: Low
Question: Kinetic energy depends on
A. mass only
B. speed only
C. mass and speed
D. temperature only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kinetic energy is 1/2 mv^2.
Question 454 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: The pressure at the same depth in the same liquid is
A. the same in all directions
B. dependent on container shape
C. less at the bottom
D. greater at the sides only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure in a liquid at a point acts equally in all directions.
Question 455 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Low
Question: A good conductor of heat among the following is
A. air
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 232B. plastic
C. wood
D. copper
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Metals such as copper conduct heat well.
Question 456 Topic: Thermal Physics Likelihood: Low
Question: A good insulator of heat among the following is
A. aluminium
B. silver
C. wood
D. copper
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wood is a poor conductor and therefore a good insulator.
Question 457 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: Transverse waves vibrate
A. in circles only
B. parallel to the direction of travel
C. without energy
D. perpendicular to the direction of travel
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In transverse waves the disturbance is at right angles to motion.
Question 458 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: Longitudinal waves vibrate
A. randomly
B. perpendicular to the direction of travel
C. only in solids
D. parallel to the direction of travel
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The particle motion is along the direction of travel.
Question 459 Topic: Light and Optics Likelihood: Low
Question: A shadow is formed because light
A. travels in straight lines
B. is always absorbed
C. cannot pass through glass
D. moves in circles
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Opaque objects block straight-line rays.
Question 460 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: The opposition offered by a conductor to current flow is
A. resistance
B. impedance only
C. conductance
D. voltage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Resistance opposes current.
Question 461 Topic: Magnetism and Electronics Likelihood: Low
Question: An electromagnet loses most of its magnetism when
A. it is painted
B. the current is switched off
C. it is cooled
D. it is cut
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Without current, the magnetic field collapses.
Question 462 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Likelihood: Low
Question: Isotopes of the same element have the same
A. atomic number
B. physical state always
C. number of neutrons
D. mass number
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: They have the same number of protons.
Question 463 Topic: Simple Electronics Likelihood: Low
Question: A rectifier is used to convert
A. alternating current to direct current
B. direct current to alternating current
C. light to sound
D. heat to electricity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rectifiers convert AC to DC.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 233Question 464 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1 kW is used for 2 h. The energy consumed is
A. 2 kWh
B. 3 kWh
C. 4 kWh
D. 1 kWh
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1 x 2 = 2 kWh.
Question 465 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 2 kW is used for 3 h. The energy consumed is
A. 5 kWh
B. 3 kWh
C. 7 kWh
D. 6 kWh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 2 x 3 = 6 kWh.
Question 466 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 0.5 kW is used for 4 h. The energy consumed is
A. 3 kWh
B. 1 kWh
C. 2 kWh
D. 4.5 kWh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 0.5 x 4 = 2 kWh.
Question 467 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 3 kW is used for 1.5 h. The energy consumed is
A. 2.25 kWh
B. 4.5 kWh
C. 6.5 kWh
D. 5.5 kWh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 3 x 1.5 = 4.5 kWh.
Question 468 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 0.25 kW is used for 8 h. The energy consumed is
A. 2 kWh
B. 1 kWh
C. 3 kWh
D. 8.25 kWh
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 0.25 x 8 = 2 kWh.
Question 469 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 4 kW is used for 0.5 h. The energy consumed is
A. 1 kWh
B. 3 kWh
C. 4.5 kWh
D. 2 kWh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 4 x 0.5 = 2 kWh.
Question 470 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1.2 kW is used for 5 h. The energy consumed is
A. 3 kWh
B. 6 kWh
C. 6.2 kWh
D. 7 kWh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1.2 x 5 = 6 kWh.
Question 471 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 0.8 kW is used for 6 h. The energy consumed is
A. 2.4 kWh
B. 5.8 kWh
C. 6.8 kWh
D. 4.8 kWh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 0.8 x 6 = 4.8 kWh.
Question 472 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 2.5 kW is used for 2 h. The energy consumed is
A. 6 kWh
B. 5 kWh
C. 4.5 kWh
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 234D. 2.5 kWh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 2.5 x 2 = 5 kWh.
Question 473 Topic: Current Electricity Likelihood: Low
Question: An appliance rated 1.5 kW is used for 4 h. The energy consumed is
A. 3 kWh
B. 5.5 kWh
C. 7 kWh
D. 6 kWh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Energy = power x time = 1.5 x 4 = 6 kWh.
Question 474 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 100 N with an effort of 20 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 7
B. 120
C. 2.5
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 100/20 = 5.
Question 475 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 200 N with an effort of 50 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 4
B. 250
C. 6
D. 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 200/50 = 4.
Question 476 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 150 N with an effort of 30 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 180
B. 2.5
C. 7
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 150/30 = 5.
Question 477 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 80 N with an effort of 10 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 90
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 80/10 = 8.
Question 478 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 120 N with an effort of 40 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 5
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. 160
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 120/40 = 3.
Question 479 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 60 N with an effort of 15 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. 75
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 60/15 = 4.
Question 480 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 250 N with an effort of 50 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 300
B. 2.5
C. 7
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 250/50 = 5.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 235Question 481 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 90 N with an effort of 30 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 5
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 120
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 90/30 = 3.
Question 482 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 300 N with an effort of 75 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 2
B. 6
C. 375
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 300/75 = 4.
Question 483 Topic: Mechanics and Machines Likelihood: Low
Question: A machine raises a load of 40 N with an effort of 8 N. Its mechanical advantage is
A. 2.5
B. 48
C. 5
D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mechanical advantage = load/effort = 40/8 = 5.
Question 484 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.5 s. Its frequency is
A. 1 Hz
B. 2.5 Hz
C. 2 Hz
D. 3 Hz
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.5 = 2 Hz.
Question 485 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.2 s. Its frequency is
A. 5.2 Hz
B. 5 Hz
C. 2.5 Hz
D. 6 Hz
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.2 = 5 Hz.
Question 486 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.1 s. Its frequency is
A. 10.1 Hz
B. 5 Hz
C. 11 Hz
D. 10 Hz
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.1 = 10 Hz.
Question 487 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 2 s. Its frequency is
A. 2.5 Hz
B. 1.5 Hz
C. 0.5 Hz
D. 0.25 Hz
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/2 = 0.5 Hz.
Question 488 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 4 s. Its frequency is
A. 4.25 Hz
B. 0.25 Hz
C. 0.125 Hz
D. 1.25 Hz
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/4 = 0.25 Hz.
Question 489 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.25 s. Its frequency is
A. 4.25 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 4 Hz
D. 5 Hz
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 236Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.25 = 4 Hz.
Question 490 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.05 s. Its frequency is
A. 20 Hz
B. 20.05 Hz
C. 10 Hz
D. 21 Hz
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.05 = 20 Hz.
Question 491 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 1 s. Its frequency is
A. 0.5 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 3 Hz
D. 1 Hz
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/1 = 1 Hz.
Question 492 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.4 s. Its frequency is
A. 2.9 Hz
B. 2.5 Hz
C. 3.5 Hz
D. 1.25 Hz
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.4 = 2.5 Hz.
Question 493 Topic: Waves and Sound Likelihood: Low
Question: A wave has a period of 0.8 s. Its frequency is
A. 1.25 Hz
B. 0.625 Hz
C. 2.25 Hz
D. 2.05 Hz
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Frequency f = 1/T = 1/0.8 = 1.25 Hz.
Question 494 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 0.8 g/cm3. Its relative density is
A. 0.4
B. 1.8
C. 1.6
D. 0.8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 0.8.
Question 495 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 1.2 g/cm3. Its relative density is
A. 1.2
B. 2.2
C. 2.4
D. 0.6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 1.2.
Question 496 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 2.5 g/cm3. Its relative density is
A. 1.25
B. 3.5
C. 5
D. 2.5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 2.5.
Question 497 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 0.5 g/cm3. Its relative density is
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 1.5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 0.5.
Question 498 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 7.8 g/cm3. Its relative density is
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 237A. 3.9
B. 8.8
C. 15.6
D. 7.8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 7.8.
Question 499 Topic: Pressure and Fluids Likelihood: Low
Question: A substance has density 13.6 g/cm3. Its relative density is
A. 14.6
B. 13.6
C. 6.8
D. 27.2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Relative density is the ratio of the substance's density to that of water, so it is 13.6.
Question 500 Topic: Gravitation and Circular Motion Likelihood: Low
Question: Weightlessness experienced by astronauts in orbit is because they are
A. in continuous free fall around the Earth
B. beyond Earth's gravity completely
C. outside space
D. without mass
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Astronauts in orbit are still under gravity but are freely falling around Earth.
JAMB 2000 Original Practice Pack Page 238
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